General Studies Paper 1 — Mock Test 2 UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

CSE

Sep 10

46 min read

UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 GS Paper 1 Mock Test 2 | Current Affairs and Static Syllabus Practice | For Question Papers & Solutions PDFs, visit: https://www.csetests.com/

Note: Treat every mock test as a real exam. These tests are designed to consolidate your knowledge. Questions map core topics and current developments with static concepts. A serious review of each paper will steadily raise your score.

1. With reference to the Yarlung Zangbo mega dam, consider the following statements:

1. The Yarlung Zangbo Lower Reaches Hydropower Project is planned on the river that becomes the Brahmaputra after the Great Bend in Tibet.

2. Zangmu is already a dam on the middle Yarlung Zangbo; the new project sits further downstream toward Nyingchi and the Indian border.

3. India and China already share a binding water-sharing treaty on the Brahmaputra on the Indus Waters Treaty model.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

2. Consider the following statements regarding the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in India:

1. The NRC was first prepared after the 1951 Census and has been updated nationwide under the Citizenship Act, 1955.

2. The final updated NRC for Assam, published in August 2019, included over 3.11 crore people and excluded approximately 19 lakh applicants.

3. The Supreme Court has sought responses from the Centre and Assam government on petitions seeking the issuance of identity cards to those included in the NRC.

4. The NRC update in Assam was mandated by the Supreme Court as a fallout of the Assam Accord of 1985, which set March 24, 1971, as the cut-off date for citizenship.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

3. With reference to large AI data centres in India, consider the following statements:

1. Tata Consultancy Services, through HyperVault, has announced a multi-thousand-crore AI data-centre campus in Hyderabad with planned capacity of about one gigawatt.

2. A Google facility planned at Visakhapatnam has been described as using air-cooling rather than heavy water-cooling.

3. Power load, land and cooling water—not only servers—decide whether an “AI data centre” can actually run.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. The integration and interpretation of ancient religious texts within the framework of a modern constitutional republic are guided primarily by which one of the following considerations?

(a) Subordinating constitutional jurisprudence and fundamental rights entirely to traditional scriptural injunctions

(b) Reading scriptural texts through the prism of constitutional morality, non-discrimination, and the basic structure doctrine

(d) Restricting the application of judicial review exclusively to matters concerning secular administrative policies while excluding religious texts

5. The principal official reason for demanding a nationwide caste count, including Other Backward Classes and Extremely Backward Classes, is which one of the following?

(a) To replace the Census Act, 1948 with State caste surveys as the legal population record.

(b) To obtain an updated population share so that reservation and welfare design rest on a count, not on old estimates.

(d) To make an open caste column in Census 2027 a substitute for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe schedules.

6. With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation and State consent, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, the CBI cannot ordinarily investigate in a State without that State’s consent.

2. A State may grant general consent for some offences and still require prior permission before action against its own public servants.

3. Extension of CBI jurisdiction can cover Union employees and Central public sector staff while keeping case-wise nod for State-cadre officers.

4. After the new criminal codes, Section 6 of the 1946 Act no longer applies and the CBI may enter any State as of right.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7. Consider the following statements regarding the UN General Assembly resolution "Correct the Map":

1. The resolution promotes the use of equal-area map projections, such as the Equal Earth projection, to represent the relative sizes of continental landmasses more accurately.

2. The resolution calls for a ban on the use of the 16th-century Mercator projection in educational and official materials.

3. India voted in favour of the resolution but clarified that its support does not constitute an endorsement of any specific map projection.

4. The resolution was adopted with overwhelming support, with 164 votes in favour and only the United States voting against it.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

8. Consider the following statements about the jurisdiction of the National Investigation Agency (NIA):

1. The NIA can investigate those offences that are specifically listed in the Schedule to the NIA Act, 2008.

2. The NIA has the power to investigate a "scheduled offence" as well as any other connected offence, even if not listed in the Schedule.

3. The NIA can take over the investigation of a case only upon the request of the concerned State Government.

4. The NIA replaces every State police force the moment an FIR names a banned outfit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

9. Consider the following pairs of prominent Neolithic sites and their unique archaeological features in the Indian subcontinent:

1. Burzahom: Characterized by subterranean pit dwellings, a lack of horse remains, and distinct bone tools.

2. Mehrgarh: Located in the Kachhi plain of Baluchistan; represents one of the earliest known farming settlements with evidence of early wheat and barley cultivation.

3. Koldihawa: Situated in the Belan Valley of Uttar Pradesh, notable for yielding some of the earliest empirical evidence of rice cultivation.

4. Daojali Hading: Located in the Brahmaputra valley of Assam, known for extensive findings of bronze-cast utensils and punch-marked coins.

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) One only

(b) Two only

(d) All four

10. With reference to community festivals of India, consider the following pairs:

Festival Name Community/Region Key Feature

1. Suru Summer Festival Purgi community, Ladakh Recently promoted as a UT-level festival to boost sustainable tourism

2. Wangala Festival Garo community, Meghalaya A harvest festival celebrated with the rhythmic beating of 100 drums

3. Nuakhai Festival Western Odisha A harvest festival marking the offering of the new crop (Nabanna) to the presiding deity

4. Gaan-Ngai Festival Zeliangrong community, Manipur The greatest festival of the community, celebrated as a post-harvest festival

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. Consider the following pairs:

Border point Neighbouring country / sector

1. Vacha-Damai Border Personnel Meeting Point India–China Line of Actual Control, Arunachal Pradesh

2. Chakan-da-Bagh India–Pakistan Line of Control, Poonch

3. Banbasa–Mahendranagar India–Bhutan commercial gate

4. Zokhawthar–Rihkhawdar India–Myanmar, Mizoram–Chin

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

12. Consider the following statements regarding hospital fire safety standards:

1. The 2026 National Guidelines on Fire and Life Safety in Healthcare Facilities mandate horizontal evacuation for NICU (Neonatal Intensive Care Unit) patients.

2. The National Building Construction Standards (NBCS) 2026 lowered the height restriction for hospitals from 45 metres to 30 metres.

3. Fire NOC exemptions under NABH guidelines apply to government-run hospitals with NICU facilities.

4. The National Building Code, 2016, exclusively governs fire safety in all healthcare facilities across India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following statements about the floods in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar:

1. Heavy sediment deposition raises riverbeds, causing rivers to shift course and flood areas far from their banks.

2. Unpredictable extreme weather, cloudbursts, and glacial lake outbursts in Nepal trigger sudden flood surges.

3. Flash floods in these states are caused by local heavy rainfall within their own boundaries.

4. Embankment failures occur primarily due to river flows exceeding their designed carrying capacity.

Which one of the statements given above is correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

14. Which of the following rivers is the extreme case of avulsion?

(a) Ghaghara (b) Gandak (c) Kosi (d) Bagmati

15. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and oath of office of High Court Judges:

1. The Governor of the state administers the oath of office to a High Court Judge and the Chief Justice of that High Court.

2. The appointment of a High Court Chief Justice is made by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state.

3. The views of the state government are not required to be sought before the appointment of a High Court Chief Justice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. With reference to State Planning Commissions / Boards in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are constitutional bodies listed in Part XII of the Constitution, like the Finance Commission.

2. By convention the Chief Minister is often the ex-officio Chairperson, with the Chief Secretary and Finance Secretary as members.

3. After the Union Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog, every State was legally bound to wind up its planning body.

4. Tamil Nadu’s State Planning Commission, about 55 years old, has been considered for replacement by subject-specific expert committees.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

17. Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and the requirement of Gram Sabha consent for projects:

1. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, explicitly requires the consent of the Gram Sabha for Stage-II forest clearance for infrastructure projects.

2. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has stated that matters relating to Gram Sabha consent for forest clearance do not fall under its purview.

3. The requirement for Gram Sabha consent for forest diversion originates from rules framed under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, which mandate that all processes under the Forest Rights Act be completed before forest land is diverted.

4. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Public Undertakings has recommended replacing the 100% Gram Sabha consent requirement with a 'qualified super-majority' consent of 70-75% for large hydropower projects.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

18. Consider the following statements about the criteria for declaring a community as a Scheduled Tribe in India:

1. The Lokur Committee's five criteria are statutorily mandated for ST status.

2. Geographical isolation and primitive traits are two Lokur Committee criteria.

3. A community's demand for ST status and review by the Registrar General of India and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes are sufficient for inclusion under Article 342.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only

19. Consider the following statements about Tamil Nadu's 'Thai Maaman Thanga Mothiram Thittam' initiative:

1. The scheme was launched to reduce the state's fiscal deficit by converting cash benefits into gold assets.

2. The scheme replaces the Centre's Janani Suraksha Yojana cash benefit.

3. It gives a one-gram gold ring to babies born in government hospitals to State residents.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

20. Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) outflows from Indian equities:

1. Persistent FPI outflows are primarily driven by domestic factors such as India's slowing GDP growth and weakening corporate earnings.

2. Higher US bond yields and a stronger US dollar have reduced the relative attractiveness of emerging market assets like Indian equities.

3. Strong domestic institutional flows (DIIs), including SIPs, have acted as a buffer, absorbing foreign selling and preventing a sharp correction in rupee terms.

4. FPI outflows are a result of India's inclusion in global bond indices, which has diverted foreign capital away from equities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

21. With reference to the historical maritime trade networks and cultural circuits of the Indian Ocean, consider the following statements:

1. The maritime trade across the Indian Ocean was historically independent of seasonal wind patterns and monsoon cycles.

2. The ancient trade routes connected major emporia along the Indian coastline, such as Muziris and Barygaza, with ports in the Persian Gulf, East Africa, and Southeast Asia.

3. The diffusion of cultural elements, religions, and architectural styles to Southeast Asia usually occurred through military conquests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

22. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s institutional framework and policy roadmap for a Drug-Free India by 2029:

I. The Vision Document on Drug Control (2026–2029) rests entirely on four core pillars: Intelligence-Led Enforcement, Precursor Control, Demand and Harm Reduction, and Capacity Building and Coordination.

II. The National Narcotics Coordination (NCORD) mechanism operates through a four-tier architecture extending from the apex level down to the district level.

III. Achieving a drug-free nation by 2029 relies exclusively on coercive policing and asset seizures without requiring parallel demand-reduction or rehabilitation initiatives.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.

2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only

23. Which of the following best explains the key conceptual difference between a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) and a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in the Indian context?

1. A CEPA is a legally binding treaty, whereas an FTA is a non-binding memorandum of understanding between countries.

2. A CEPA covers trade in goods and services, investment, and broader economic cooperation, while an FTA primarily focuses on reducing tariffs on goods.

3. A CEPA requires complete elimination of all tariffs, whereas an FTA allows countries to retain tariffs on all sensitive products.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

24. Identify the volcano on the basis of the following information:

1. It is a post-1883 cone that grew in the caldera of a parent island whose eruption sent a major tsunami through a busy strait.

2. It stands in the Sunda Strait between Sumatra and Java.

3. A partial collapse of the cone in 2018 again generated a tsunami.

4. In September 2026, volcanic ash forced a temporary halt to flights at Jakarta’s Soekarno-Hatta International Airport.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Mount Sinabung (b) Mount Anak Krakatau (c) Mount Merapi (d) Mount Semeru

25. Consider the following statements with reference to judicial accountability when a High Court is under a cloud:

1. The Constitution itself sets out a detailed in-house inquiry code that the Chief Justice of India must complete within thirty days of a complaint against a High Court judge.

2. Removal of a High Court judge follows the address-and-impeachment path indicated in Articles 124(4) and 217(1)(b), read with the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

3. K. Veeraswami v. Union of India (1991) requires the Chief Justice of India’s nod before an FIR is registered against a judge of the higher judiciary.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

26. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s official employment and unemployment data:

1. There is no statutory definition of "unemployment" enshrined in the Constitution of India, and employment statistics are measured entirely through administrative and statistical surveys rather than constitutional mandates.

2. There is no official metric in the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) that computes the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) or the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) using the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.

3. The monthly Periodic Labour Force Survey print is a complete substitute for Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation, Employees’ State Insurance Corporation and GST payroll counts.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

27. Consider the following statements with reference to a decade of inflation targeting in India:

1. Since 2016, the Reserve Bank of India has been mandated to target 4% Consumer Price Index inflation with a band of plus or minus 2 percentage points, using the repo rate as the primary instrument.

2. Empirical studies using Indian data have found a flat Phillips curve, suggesting little trade-off between output and inflation, which complicates the standard monetary policy transmission mechanism.

3. The Reserve Bank of India's Household Inflation Expectations Survey consistently prints below the actual CPI inflation rate, indicating that the public expects lower inflation than what is realized.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

28. Consider the following statements about the Food Safety Compliance System (FoSCoS) and food safety administration in India:

1. FoSCoS is an integrated digital platform developed by FSSAI to string licensing, registration, inspection reports, laboratory testing results, and penalty management into a single unified digital chain.

2. The platform requires food business operators to maintain separate, offline paper-based registers for all licensing renewals and statutory compliance filings.

3. The adjudication of penalties and compounding of offenses identified through inspections on FoSCoS are handled by civil courts.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

29. Consider the following statements with reference to the recent WHO validation concerning rabies:

1. The World Health Organization has validated Bhutan as the first country in its South-East Asia Region to eliminate dog-transmitted rabies as a public-health problem.

2. The validation certifies that the rabies virus has been eradicated from all animal reservoirs in Bhutan, including wildlife, and that no further post-exposure prophylaxis is required after a dog bite.

3. WHO validation rests on the absence of human deaths from dog-mediated rabies for at least two years, together with demonstrated capacity to prevent the transmission route from re-emerging.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

30. Consider the following pairs of accidentally discovered species and the circumstances of their finding in India:

Species Circumstance of Discovery

1. Himalayan Happy-Face Spider Discovered during a survey of ants in Uttarakhand's montane forests

2. Astrobatrachus kurichiyana Found during a night walk in a shola forest of Kerala's Western Ghats

3. Eechathalakenda incognita Identified from deep-sea trawl landings at Sakthikulangara fishing harbour in Kollam

4. Eublepharis jhuma Discovered during an environmental impact assessment study in Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary, Bihar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

31. A five-storey building used as a Paying Guest hostel for outstation students collapsed at Satya Niketan in New Delhi, killing several occupants. The Delhi High Court directed the Municipal Corporation of Delhi to audit Paying Guest hostels, examine building bye-laws and permissions, and said responsibility could not be confined to the property owner alone. Rescue work ended after debris clearance; students from other States were among the dead. Urban families still depend on such private hostels because formal university housing is short. As a civic and campus-safety officer, you must prevent the next collapse without driving students onto the street.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A workable response should start by mapping every Paying Guest building against sanctioned plans, occupancy and fire-safety norms before any blanket sealing drive.

2. The Municipal Corporation of Delhi should treat the tragedy as a private landlord–tenant dispute and leave university authorities entirely outside the inquiry.

3. Creating a joint inspection cell of the Municipal Corporation of Delhi, fire services and university hostel offices would help match licence data with where students actually live.

4. Publishing a time-bound audit of permissions, unauthorised floors and vacant public hostel beds would support evidence-based rules for mixed-use Paying Guest housing.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Which of the following statements regarding the Sri Ananta Padmanabha Swamy Temple at Padmanabham is/are correct?

1. The temple is a 600-year-old hill shrine located in Padmanabham mandal of Visakhapatnam district, with a legend connecting it to the Pandavas' exile.

2. It is the same Padmanabhaswamy Temple whose vaults and Travancore royal trusteeship have been the subject of Supreme Court litigation.

3. The temple is the original abode (moolasthanam) of the Lord Padmanabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

33. Which of the following statements with regard to the recent United Nations world map and India’s northern frontiers is/are correct?

1. A United Nations Geospatial world map used during consultations on the “Correct the Map” resolution depicts Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin as belts lying between Indian and Chinese lines.

2. Unlike the 2011 United Nations map, the July 2026 version does not expressly label those lines as “claim lines”, though the map is formally non-binding.

3. The Ministry of External Affairs has stated that support for the “Correct the Map” resolution amounts to official United Nations endorsement of that depiction of India’s boundaries.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

34. Which of the following statements with regard to the Allahabad High Court's ruling on the detention of a student activist under the National Security Act (NSA) is/are correct?

1. The High Court quashed the detention, holding that the continued incarceration violated the student's fundamental right under Article 21 as the detention order was passed without proper application of mind and lacked credible material.

2. The Court awarded ₹5 lakh compensation to be paid from the public exchequer as a token of the State's responsibility for wrongful detention.

3. The Bench observed that the District Magistrate had "desired to set an example" out of the student and warned that continued "despotic" conduct by the bureaucracy could reduce Uttar Pradesh to an "Orwellian Dystopia".

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

35. Which one of the following best describes “digital hawala”?

(a) An instant payment rail that replaces cash hawala with fully identified bank transfers in every jurisdiction

(b) The use of messaging apps, fintech wallets, virtual assets and related platforms to coordinate, settle or conceal informal value transfers that still rest on the traditional hawala trust network

(d) None of the above

36. With reference to the byelections, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a bye-election is held when a seat falls vacant because of resignation, death, disqualification, or the election being declared void.

2. The bye-elections are ordered due to irregularities in electoral rolls.

3. The Election Commission is legally barred from scheduling bye-elections if a general election for that particular legislative assembly is due within the next twenty-four months, regardless of remaining terms.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

37. The Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment recently attended a community event in a district where, after his departure, local authorities ordered a "purification" of the venue. This action was challenged in court by a group from the Scheduled Caste community. Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional and legal questions raised is/are correct?

1. Any public "purification" ceremony following the use of a venue by a Scheduled Caste leader directly violates Article 17 of the Constitution, which abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form.

2. An act of public "purification" intended to humiliate a member of a Scheduled Caste community on the basis of caste would be an offense under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, if it occurred in a place within public view.

3. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, can be invoked against any form of social protest, including a "purification" ceremony, regardless of its intended meaning.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

38. With reference to the "Yen Carry Trade" and its implications for global financial stability, consider the following statements:

1. It involves borrowing in a low-interest-rate currency like the yen and investing the proceeds in higher-yielding assets denominated in other currencies.

2. An unwinding event is typically triggered by a narrowing of interest rate differentials, often due to monetary policy tightening by the Bank of Japan.

3. The unwinding of yen-funded carry trades generally leads to a surge in capital inflows into emerging market economies.

4. A sharp unwinding can create a self-reinforcing cycle where yen appreciation forces more position closures, amplifying market volatility.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

39. With reference to the Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica) in India, consider the following statements:

1. India's Gir landscape and its surrounding region in Gujarat constitute the only natural habitat for Asiatic lions in the wild.

2. A distinctive morphological feature of the Asiatic lion compared to the African lion is the presence of a longitudinal fold of skin running along its belly.

3. Under Project Lion, the Barda Wildlife Sanctuary has been identified as a key location to serve as a second home for Asiatic lions within Gujarat.

4. The Asiatic lion is currently listed as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

40. With reference to the management and removal of Invasive Alien Plant Species (IAPS) in Reserved Forests in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Forest Survey of India (FSI) has compiled a dedicated album identifying 45 major invasive plant species to monitor their occurrence in Reserved Forest Areas.

2. The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) has submitted a state-wise inventory of invasive species to the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) to facilitate the drafting of a National Management Plan.

3. The direct execution, removal, and post-clearing regeneration drives in Reserved Forests fall under the exclusive executive mandate of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

4. The National Working Plan Code, 2023 provides for ecosystem-based forest management and mandates preference for site-specific native species during forest regeneration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

41. Which one of the following correctly describes the primary benefit of the United Kingdom's recognition of India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) under its Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)?

(a) Indian exporters will be exempted from all UK carbon taxes, eliminating the need for any compliance documentation.

(b) UK importers of eligible Indian goods can seek carbon price relief for the effective carbon price already borne under the CCTS, thereby reducing the CBAM liability on Indian exports and avoiding double taxation.

(c) The recognition allows Indian companies to directly trade their carbon credits in the UK's domestic emissions trading market.

(d) It mandates the complete removal of UK import duties on all carbon-intensive products originating from India.

42. With reference to the recent observations of the Supreme Court in cases of alleged assault on doctors in Maharashtra hospitals, which one of the following is correct?

(a) The Court held that violence against doctors is a private dispute and cannot be treated as a law-and-order issue.

(b) The Court observed that persons who assault doctors and hospital staff do not deserve to roam freely and that a deterrent message must go to society.

(c) The Court directed that all such cases be transferred from State police to the Central Bureau of Investigation as a matter of course.

(d) The Court quashed the Bombay High Court’s suo motu stay on bail granted to the accused in the Thane hospital assault case.

43. With reference to the recent direction of the Supreme Court seeking updated information on old-age homes, which one of the following is correct?

(a) The Court directed the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to file a pan-India census of senior citizens within two weeks.

(b) The Court asked all States and Union Territories to file fresh status reports on the establishment of old-age homes and the facilities provided therein.

(c) The Court transferred the entire matter to all High Courts and closed the pending public interest litigation before it related to old-age homes.

(d) The Court held that Section 19 of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, making old-age homes mandatory in every district, need to be implemented.

44. With reference to recent analyses on decarbonising India’s steel sector, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Relining a blast furnace before 2030 would immediately convert it into a green-hydrogen plant and cut its emissions to near zero.

(b) Most planned blast furnace–basic oxygen furnace plants in India have already begun construction, leaving no scope to redirect investment.

(c) Avoiding new coal-based blast furnaces and not relining young furnaces, while shifting investment to electric arc furnaces or direct reduced iron routes, can reduce long-term carbon lock-in.

(d) India’s steel sector already has an emissions intensity below the global average and therefore faces no lock-in risk from new coal-based capacity.

45. Which one of the following is most accurately described as a space programme that has so far benefited the largest number of people on Earth through everyday applications?

(a) Crewed lunar landing missions such as Apollo, whose primary purpose was scientific exploration of the Moon.

(b) Application-oriented satellite programmes for communication, weather forecasting, remote sensing and navigation (such as INSAT, IRS/NavIC and GPS-class systems).

(d) Human outposts in low-Earth orbit such as the International Space Station, used mainly for microgravity research and crew training.

46. Consider the following statements regarding the word “caste” and related provisions in the Constitution of India:

1. The word “caste” appears as a prohibited ground of discrimination in Articles 15, 16 and 29.

2. The Preamble expressly mentions abolition of caste as one of the objectives of the Constitution.

3. Article 17, while abolishing untouchability, uses the word “caste” in its text.

4. Article 341 empowers the President to specify, by public notification, the castes, races or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

47. With reference to the legal status of tobacco-free nicotine pouches in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) They are expressly listed as tobacco products under the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003 (COTPA).

(b) They are covered by the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Act, 2019 (PECA), because they deliver nicotine like e-cigarettes.

(c) They are not named in COTPA or PECA; their treatment under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and food-safety rules on nicotine in oral products remains contested, creating a regulatory grey zone.

(d) They are freely importable as “free” goods under the DGFT schedule and require no licence or restriction.

48. Which of the following statements about Piped Natural Gas (PNG) in India are correct?

1. PNG is supplied through underground pipelines at low pressure, eliminating the risks associated with storing and handling LPG cylinders.

2. PNG is more expensive than LPG on a per-unit energy basis, making it less affordable for households.

3. The Government of India has approved an Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Domestic PNG Connections to fast-track the expansion of active PNG connections.

4. PNG is considered an environment-friendly fuel as it produces fewer pollutants than conventional cooking fuels.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 only

49. Which of the following statements about air-cooling versus liquid-cooling for a 1-GW data centre are correct?

1. Air-cooling is considered impractical for a 1-GW data centre due to the immense heat load, while liquid-cooling offers higher efficiency but comes with significantly higher upfront costs and system complexity.

2. Liquid-cooling is the only viable option for a 1-GW AI data centre because modern high-density AI racks exceed the cooling capacity limits of air-cooling.

3. Large-scale data centres are increasingly turning to hybrid solutions that combine air and liquid cooling, using air for lower-density servers and liquid for the most demanding AI workloads.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

50. Consider the following statements regarding India's jute sector and its role in the agricultural economy:

1. India is the world's largest producer of raw jute and accounts for about 75% of estimated global jute goods production.

2. The National Jute Development Programme (NJDP) is implemented with an outlay of around ₹485 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26, focusing on farm productivity and diversification.

3. West Bengal accounts for the majority of India's jute mills, with the sector supporting around 40 lakh farm families and providing direct employment to about 3.70 lakh workers.

4. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for raw jute has been reduced for FY 2026-27 compared to FY 2024-25 to align with global market trends.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

51. Which of the following statements about e-FAST India (Electric Freight Accelerator for Sustainable Transport – India) are correct?

1. e-FAST India is a NITI Aayog-led platform that brings together government and industry stakeholders to accelerate the transition to zero-emission freight in India.

2. The platform launched the Platform for Aggregating Clean Transport (PACT) to aggregate freight demand and translate it into deployment opportunities for electric medium- and heavy-duty vehicles.

3. The ZET Marketplace was introduced as a platform for government agencies to regulate electric truck manufacturing standards.

4. The 2025 e-FAST India Summit concluded that India's freight sector currently has no significant barriers to electric truck adoption.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

52. With reference to modern aquaculture technologies in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Recirculatory Aquaculture System (RAS) recycles up to 90-95% of water through filtration and is being promoted under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).

2. In Biofloc technology, beneficial microbes form clumps that serve as natural feed for the fish and help clean the culture water.

3. India is the world's largest fish producer and the largest producer and exporter of shrimp.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

53. With reference to the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan, consider the following statements:

1. It is an annual assessment framework launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) to evaluate and rank cities based on their air quality improvement efforts.

2. The framework evaluates cities on their overall ambient air quality (PM10 concentration) only, giving primary weightage to the actual reduction in pollution levels.

3. For the 2026 edition, cities are categorized into three groups based on population: above 10 lakh, between 3-10 lakh, and below 3 lakh, with awards presented for the 10 best-performing cities in each category.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

54. Consider the following statements with reference to quantum entanglement:

1. Quantum entanglement is a phenomenon where a pair of particles exists in a shared state, such that measuring one instantly determines the state of the other, regardless of the distance between them.

2. The 2022 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded for experiments that proved quantum entanglement is a real phenomenon and not the result of unknown forces.

3. Quantum entanglement can be used for faster-than-light communication, and this principle is already being used to develop instant communication systems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

55. With reference to “judicial follow-up” of Supreme Court directions in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Once the Supreme Court issues nationwide directions in a public-interest matter, High Courts have no power to monitor State-level compliance.

(b) The Supreme Court may use a continuing mandamus and require High Courts to register suo motu petitions so that day-to-day compliance is supervised closer to the ground.

(c) Follow-up of Supreme Court orders is exclusively the duty of the Union Cabinet and cannot involve Chief Secretaries or High Court Registrars.

(d) A continuing mandamus is available only in criminal appeals and cannot be used in environmental or civic-administration cases.

56. With reference to the Bhojshala-Kamal Maula Mosque complex, consider the following statements:

1. The Madhya Pradesh High Court concluded that the religious character of the Bhojshala complex was originally associated with a temple of Goddess Vagdevi (Saraswati) under the Paramara dynasty.

2. The disputed site is historically linked to the patronage of King Raja Bhoj, who established it as a major center of Sanskrit learning.

3. The historical idol of Goddess Vagdevi, originally removed from Dhar during the colonial era, is currently housed in the Louvre Museum in Paris, France.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

57. With reference to the recent cybersecurity initiatives in India's digital payment ecosystem, consider the following statements regarding the proposed 'Kill Switch' mechanism:

1. It is a centralized emergency framework proposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enable victims of digital fraud to instantly freeze outbound transactions across bank accounts, payment gateways, and UPI handles.

2. A victim's request is first routed to a designated government agency, which then initiates the freeze.

3. The primary objective of the initiative is to minimize capital flight during ongoing scams and enhance systemic resilience within the digital payment infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

58. With reference to the recent legal and fiscal developments regarding taxation in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of retrospective 28% Goods and Services Tax (GST) amendments applicable to online gaming companies and casinos under the CGST Act.

2. Under the current Indian constitutional framework, the Union Government can’t pass the tax legislation with retrospective effect.

3. Retrospective taxation measures are governed and finalized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

59. With reference to the concept and practice of Retrospective Taxation in India, consider the following statements:

1. Parliament can levy taxes under the Income Tax Act, 1961, on past transactions or capital gains before the amending law.

2. Retrospective taxation gained prominence after 2012 amendments following the Supreme Court’s Vodafone judgment.

3. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 expanded retrospective demands to recover pending international arbitration awards against India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

60. With reference to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. It imposes a blanket statutory prohibition exclusively on "online money games" involving financial stakes or monetary rewards, while explicitly permitting and establishing a regulatory framework for e-sports and online social games.

2. The legislation establishes the Online Gaming Authority of India primarily to oversee regulatory compliance, register permissible games, and curb illicit cross-border financial flows.

3. The Act incorporates comprehensive provisions to safeguard user data, address digital addiction, and regulate online gaming advertisements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

61. Which of the following statements about the Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC) are correct?

1. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) primarily connects Ludhiana in Punjab to Dankuni in West Bengal, passing through major industrial hubs.

2. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) is designed with a higher axle load capacity to handle heavier container traffic, connecting Dadri to JNPT.

3. The DFC project is 75% funded by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA), with the remaining 25% contributed by the Government of India.

4. The implementation of the DFC is expected to significantly reduce logistics costs and carbon emissions by allowing the operation of double-stack container trains.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. Which of the following statements about Abha, Jazan, Najran, and Khamis Mushait is correct?

These locations were recently in the news regarding:

(a) Major archaeological discoveries from the prehistoric human migration routes through the Arabian Peninsula.

(b) Large-scale missile and drone strikes by the Yemen-based Houthi group targeting civilian and economic infrastructure.

(d) The establishment of new Special Economic Zones (SEZs) as part of Saudi Arabia's Vision 2030 economic diversification plan.

63. Which of the following statements about West Bengal’s Shakta tradition is/are correct?

1. The Shakta tradition in West Bengal is heavily influenced by the Dakshinachara (Right-Hand Path) and Vamachara (Left-Hand Path) practices, with the latter historically associated with Tantra and esoteric rituals.

2. The Goddess Kali is the presiding deity of the Kalighat Temple, which serves as a major center for the Shakta tradition, while Tarapith is associated with the Tantric practices of Bamakhepa.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. The Supreme Court of India recently barred the State of Assam from appointing private school teachers under the 2017 law, directing the state to instead conduct recruitment through the Board of Secondary Education, Assam (SBSA). The Court observed that the state government had bypassed the requirement of an open advertisement and public examination to fill vacancies. This legal framework was challenged on the ground that the 2017 law allegedly violated the fundamental rights of candidates by favoring contractual appointments over regular public recruitment, thereby undermining fair play and merit.

Which one among the following principles of constitutional governance and administrative law was most strongly demonstrated by the Supreme Court's directive?

(a) Doctrine of Separation of Powers

(b) Principle of Affirmative Action

(d) Doctrine of Sovereign Immunity

65. Consider the term "Open-Column Method", which was recently in the news:

(a) A data-collection technique proposed for the upcoming Census where respondents or enumerators are allowed to manually type or self-declare caste names rather than choosing from a pre-loaded, standardized list.

(b) A novel chromatographic technique used in molecular biotechnology for isolating rare earth elements from deep-sea mineral ores.

(c) A fiscal data-sharing framework implemented by the Reserve Bank of India to track cross-border digital lending transactions.

(d) An open-source architecture deployed for quantum data-bus routing in multi-qubit superconducting processors.

66. ‘Chitta’, recently in the news, refers to:

(a) A plant-based opioid cultivated under licence in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

(b) Adulterated/synthetic heroin widely reported in Punjab and adjoining states

(d) A pharmaceutical opioid approved for use in government de-addiction centres

67. Which of the following statements regarding the Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA), 1988 and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 is/are correct?

1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 empowers the Enforcement Directorate (ED) to conduct searches and seizures; however, it mandates that the accused must be provided with the grounds of arrest in writing immediately.

2. The Supreme Court recently held that the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 does not require prior sanction from the competent authority to prosecute a public servant for alleged corruption committed after their retirement.

3. Under Section 17A of the PCA, prior approval of the appropriate government is mandatory for any inquiry or investigation into corruption charges against a public servant for acts performed in the discharge of official duties.

4. The PMLA's definition of "proceeds of crime" includes only property derived from a scheduled offence, and the burden of proof lies entirely on the prosecution to establish its direct linkage.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

68. Which of the following statements regarding the "mismatch" issues in the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is/are correct?

1. Logical discrepancies in SIR arise when voter details align poorly with official records, triggering verification by the Booth Level Officer.

2. Name mismatches, such as post-marriage changes, are resolved using relative EPIC details, but require supporting documents like marriage certificates.

3. The online SIR form mandates linking mobile and Aadhaar numbers; any name spelling mismatch automatically blocks online submission.

4. Voters with details mismatching the 2002 rolls are categorized as "Unmapped" and permanently removed without a hearing.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

69. Consider the following statements regarding ‘expunction’ of remarks in the Indian Parliament:

1. Under the Rules of Procedure, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha may order expunction of words that are defamatory, indecent, unparliamentary or undignified.

2. Expunged portions are omitted from the printed debates and are marked by asterisks with a footnote that they were expunged as ordered by the Chair.

3. Once remarks are expunged, they cease to form part of the official record; their subsequent publication can attract a breach of privilege.

4. A member’s demand for expunction is binding on the Chair, and the Chair cannot refuse it if a point of order is raised.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

70. With reference to a recent observation of the Public Accounts Committee based on a Comptroller and Auditor General report, consider the following statements:

1. Cesses and levies are collected for specified purposes and are expected to be transferred from the Consolidated Fund to designated reserve funds in the Public Account.

2. Retention of such collections in the Consolidated Fund without transfer to the concerned reserve funds weakens the link between the levy and the purpose for which it was raised.

3. The Public Accounts Committee examines such audit observations after expenditure has been incurred and can summon officials of the Finance and line ministries.

4. Proceeds of cesses form part of the divisible pool of taxes that must be shared with the States under the Finance Commission award.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

71. Which of the following statements regarding the recent judicial observations on the remission petition of a convict is/are correct?

1. The Supreme Court has held that the "heinousness of the crime" cannot be the sole ground for denying remission, as remission is a distinct executive function concerned with present reformation and future reintegration, not a retrospective reaffirmation of guilt.

2. The Supreme Court has clarified that a sentence of life imprisonment naturally ends after a fixed term of fourteen years, as per statutory provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

3. The power to grant pardon or remission under Article 161 of the Constitution is an executive function that can be entirely overridden by a state policy formulated under the Code of Criminal Procedure.

4. The Supreme Court has mandated that any order rejecting a remission plea must be a reasoned order, as a non-speaking or cryptic decision renders it arbitrary and unsustainable in law.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

72. Seven foreign nationals (one US citizen and six Ukrainians) were recently in the news in the context of:

(a) Alleged involvement in a cross-border drone-training and terror-conspiracy case in which the NIA filed a chargesheet without invoking UAPA

(b) Deportation after conviction under the Citizenship Amendment Act for overstaying visas in a protected area

(d) Extradition requests from Ukraine and the United States in a money-laundering investigation linked to PMLA

73. BAPS, recently in the news, refers to:

(a) A UN-affiliated interfaith body that negotiated access protocols at UNESCO World Heritage Sites

(b) A global Hindu socio-spiritual organisation of the Swaminarayan tradition whose Paris temple inauguration and Eiffel Tower visit led to a staff strike after female employees were asked to stay out of sight

(d) An Indian government cultural outreach mission under the Ministry of External Affairs for temple consecrations abroad

74. Which of the following is correct regarding the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Rules, 2023 were recently in the news?

(a) Notification of Eco-Sensitive Zones around national parks and wildlife sanctuaries

(b) Procedure for prior approval for diversion of forest land, including “working permission” for linear projects after Stage-I clearance and field inspection norms

(d) Regulation of international trade in endangered species under CITES

75. The Nautor Regularisation Rules, 2026, recently in the news, are related to:

(a) Grant of proprietary rights over government-owned barren/wasteland holdings in Ladakh, with allotment powers vested in the Hill Councils.

(b) Regularisation of forest-land encroachments in Himachal Pradesh tribal areas under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

(d) One-time settlement of disputed tenancy rights under the repealed J&K Agrarian Reforms Act, 1976 in the Kashmir Valley.

76. Which of the following statements regarding the Indo-French TRISHNA mission is/are correct?

1. The TRISHNA satellite is jointly developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French space agency CNES.

2. The mission will carry a Thermal Infra-Red (TIR) payload developed by CNES and a Visible-Near Infra-Red-Short Wave Infra-Red (VNIR-SWIR) payload developed by ISRO.

3. TRISHNA is designed to measure Earth's surface temperature at high spatial resolution with a fast revisit rate.

4. The mission is targeted to be launched by the GSLV Mk-III rocket from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. The ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine for awarding capital punishment, recently in the news, was invoked in the context of:

(a) A trial court in Uttar Pradesh awarding a large number of death sentences in a short span, leading to transfer of pending murder cases

(b) The Supreme Court confirming multiple death sentences in terror-related cases after a gap of several years

(c) Parliament amending the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita to make death penalty mandatory for all cases of rape resulting in death

(d) India signing an international protocol for abolition of capital punishment

78. Which of the following statements regarding lunar-based radio astronomy missions is/are correct?

1. The far side of the Moon acts as a natural shield against Earth-generated radio interference.

2. The redshifted 21-cm signal from neutral hydrogen can probe conditions during the Cosmic Dark Ages, Cosmic Dawn and the Epoch of Reionisation.

3. India’s proposed PRATUSH mission is designed to operate in lunar orbit and measure the global 21-cm hydrogen signal from the radio-quiet far side.

4. Isolating the faint cosmological hydrogen signal from much stronger foreground emissions remains a major technological challenge.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

79. Consider the following statements about a rare trio of Pacific hurricanes recently in the news:

I. Simultaneous existence of three hurricanes in the eastern and central Pacific is uncommon and is favoured when unusually warm ocean waters supply energy for storm formation and intensification.

II. A strong El Niño tends to increase tropical cyclone activity in the eastern and central Pacific while suppressing it in the Atlantic through changes in large-scale circulation and vertical wind shear.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. Satellite and National Hurricane Center observations showed Hurricanes Karina, Lowell and Marie active at the same time; a comparable simultaneous trio last occurred in 2015 during another El Niño year.

2. Scientists and agencies noted that El Niño-related sea-surface temperature anomalies in the tropical Pacific create conditions for more and stronger storms there, while the same pattern increases wind shear that inhibits Atlantic hurricanes.

3. By early September the Northeast Pacific had already produced well above-normal numbers of named storms and hurricanes, whereas the Atlantic had produced few named storms and no hurricanes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

80. Consider the following statements about "slumping" as a soft-coral threat: I. Unlike hard corals that depend on rigid calcium carbonate skeletons for structural support, soft corals rely on internal fluid pressure (hydrostatic skeletons) to maintain an upright posture. II. Extreme marine thermal stress combined with drastic shifts in salinity and water quality can disrupt this internal pressure, causing soft corals to sag, lose shape, and collapse.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. Scientific studies documenting events around Jeju Island identified distinct stages of the collapse phenomenon, including inflation, drooping, dangle, deflation, and final disintegration.

2. The phenomenon is primarily triggered by heavy metal industrial effluent deposition that completely dissolves the external aragonite shells characteristic of soft coral species.

3. Observations indicate that marine heatwaves and large influxes of lower-salinity coastal/river runoff can severely compromise the structural integrity of uncalcified soft coral tissues.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

81. With reference to the physical geography and drainage network of the Indus River system, consider the following statements:

1. Among the six major rivers of the Indus system, the Sutlej is an antecedent river that originates in the Tibetan Autonomous Region near Lake Rakshastal.

2. The Chenab—the largest tributary of the Indus—is formed by the confluence of two headstreams, the Chandra and the Bhaga, at Tandi in the Lahaul Valley of Himachal Pradesh.

3. The Jhelum River flows through the Vale of Kashmir and Wular Lake before entering a deep narrow gorge between Baramulla and Muzaffarabad.

4. From North to South, the correct geographical sequence of the left-bank tributaries joining the Indus River within Indian territory is: Jhelum → Chenab → Ravi → Beas → Sutlej.

Which of the statements given above are CORRECT?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. With reference to the physical geography the Gaza Strip, consider the following statements:

1. The Philadelphi Corridor is a narrow buffer zone stretching along the entire border between the Gaza Strip and Egypt, running from the Mediterranean Sea to the Kerem Shalom crossing.

2. The Netzarim Corridor is an east-west axis cutting across the Gaza Strip, geographically bisecting the territory south of Gaza City and connecting the Israeli border to the Mediterranean coastline.

3. The Gaza Strip is bounded by the Mediterranean Sea to the west, Egypt to the south, and Jordan to the east.

Which of the statements given above are CORRECT?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

83. With reference to the statutory and executive provisions governing the display of the National Flag of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Flag Code of India, 2002, is an executive instruction brought together by the Ministry of Home Affairs, whereas the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, is a statutory enactment.

2. Following recent amendments to the Flag Code of India, machine-made flags and flags made of polyester material are now legally permitted alongside handspun and handwoven khadi flags.

3. If the National Flag is displayed in the open or on the house of a member of the public, the updated Flag Code allows it to remain flown both day and night.

4. The fundamental right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is recognized as an integral part of the Right to Equality under Article 14 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are CORRECT?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

84. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Dard-Shin' (or Brokpa) community, often seen in the news:

1. They are a trans-Himalayan indigenous group inhabiting regions across Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

2. They speak languages belonging to the Dardic branch of the Indo-Aryan language family.

3. The Dard-Shin tribe is officially categorized as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

85. With reference to the color-coded classification of hydrogen fuel based on its production source and technology, consider the following statements:

1. Blue Hydrogen is produced via water electrolysis using electricity generated entirely from nuclear power plants.

2. Green Hydrogen relies on steam methane reforming of natural gas where carbon dioxide emissions are captured using Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technology.

3. Brown Hydrogen is generated through the gasification of coal, giving it the highest carbon footprint among hydrogen production methods.

4. Pink Hydrogen refers to naturally occurring underground geological hydrogen extracted directly from the Earth's crust.

Which of the statements given above is CORRECT?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

86. With reference to Drone Swarm technology and Counter-Unmanned Aerial Systems (C-UAS), consider the following statements:

1. Drone swarms rely on decentralized, peer-to-peer ad-hoc networks (MANETs) to share real-time data and dynamically reconfigure mission objectives if individual drones are destroyed.

2. Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs), such as high-power microwave systems, are effective anti-swarm counter-measures because they can neutralize multiple drones simultaneously across a wide area.

3. Acoustic homing is the primary long-range mechanism used by drone swarms to navigate and strike targets in GPS-denied environments.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative competence and constitutional provisions concerning national entrance examinations for higher education in India:

1. A resolution passed by a State Legislative Assembly seeking exemption from a Central Act carries statutory force and automatically overrides the Central law.

2. The coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher and technical education fall under Entry 66 of the Union List (List I).

3. If a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List conflicts with a Central law, the State law can prevail within that State if it receives Presidential Assent under Article 254(2).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following statements regarding the seismotectonics of South America:

1. The western coast of Colombia forms an active subduction zone where the oceanic Nazca Plate slides beneath the South American Plate.

2. Earthquakes caused by oceanic-continental subduction zones occur exclusively at shallow depths (less than 10 km).

3. The Andes mountain range was primarily formed due to the divergence of tectonic plates along the Pacific margin.

4. Earthquakes in northern Venezuela primarily occur along a transpressional, right-lateral strike-slip fault system where the Caribbean Plate slides past the South American Plate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

89. With reference to the ancient history and epigraphic records regarding the region of 'Keralam', consider the following statements:

1. The earliest epigraphic evidence mentioning the region appears in the Major Rock Edicts of Mauryan Emperor Ashoka, where it is referred to as 'Keralaputra'.

2. In classical Sangam literature and Tamilakam tradition, the region was closely associated with the Chera dynasty, with the etymology rooted in terms describing the slope of the Western Ghats.

3. Greco-Roman classical accounts from historians like Pliny and Ptolemy referred to the ruling dynasty and land as 'Cerobothra', a transliteration of 'Keralaputra'.

4. The region finds no mention in ancient Sanskrit literature or Puranic texts, remaining exclusively confined to ancient Tamil and Prakrit inscriptions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. With reference to the Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) and its implications for global biosecurity, consider the following statements:

1. The virus is primarily transmitted through airborne droplets, making it as easily transmissible across borders as influenza.

2. Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are considered the natural host of the Ebola virus.

3. The Ervebo (rVSV-ZEBOV) vaccine provides universal immunization across all known species of the Ebola virus, including Bundibugyo and Sudan strains.

4. The Ebola virus is classified as a Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen due to its high fatality rate and potential for severe public health disruption.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

91. With reference to the PAIMANA (Project Assessment, Infrastructure Monitoring and Analytics for Nation-Building) framework, consider the following statements:

1. PAIMANA replaces the legacy OCMS-2006 platform to monitor ongoing Central Sector infrastructure projects.

2. The PAIMANA-CRIP module replaces DPIIT’s Integrated Project Monitoring Portal (IPMP) to function as the Central Repository of Infrastructure Projects.

3. The platform was developed and implemented by the Department of Economic Affairs to oversee state-funded capital expenditure projects.

4. The Infrastructure Performance Monitoring Dashboard evaluates projects solely based on physical and financial outputs, excluding qualitative or cost-revenue parameters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

92. With reference to the Full-Flow Staged Combustion (FFSC) rocket engine 'EVEREST', recently developed by the Indian private space sector, consider the following statements:

1. In a Full-Flow Staged Combustion cycle, 100% of both fuel and oxidizer flow pass through the pre-burners and turbines before entering the main combustion chamber.

2. The EVEREST engine uses a hypergolic propellant combination of Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) and Nitrogen Tetroxide to ensure rapid re-ignition.

3. The development of this engine received institutional backing under the Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) of IN-SPACe.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

93. With reference to fuel properties and recent findings on ethanol blending in diesel, consider the following statements:

1. The flash point of a fuel refers to the minimum temperature at which its liquid phase spontaneously ignites without requiring an external spark or flame.

2. Diesel inherently possesses a significantly higher flash point than petrol, making raw diesel safer for bulk storage and transport.

3. Blending ethanol with diesel causes a sharp reduction in the mixture's flash point, leading to its failure in meeting mandatory safety standards.

4. Isobutanol is currently used as a standard commercial substitute for ethanol in diesel blending across Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

94. With reference to the geography, ecology, and recent governance issues concerning the Aravalli Range, consider the following statements:

1. Guru Shikhar and Ser, the two highest peaks of the Aravalli Range, are located in two different districts of Rajasthan.

2. The Aravalli Range acts as a major hydrological divide separating the Indus River basin to the west from the Ganga River basin to the east.

3. Rivers such as the Luni, Sabarmati, and Banas originate in the Aravalli Range.

4. The Supreme Court-appointed High-Powered Committee on the Aravallis was constituted exclusively to demarcate boundary lines for state-wise commercial mining concessions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

95. With reference to the geopolitical implications and strategic context of the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement (2026), consider the following statements:

1. The agreement establishes a collective deterrence mechanism among Saudi Arabia, Turkey, and Pakistan, stipulating that an external armed attack on any member state shall be treated as an attack on all.

2. The agreement formally created a binding military coalition that explicitly mandates nuclear-sharing arrangements between Pakistan and the Arabian Peninsula states.

3. The pact reflects a strategic shift among regional powers toward multi-aligned, non-Western security frameworks to mitigate security uncertainties and hedge against fluctuating U.S. security guarantees in West Asia.

4. Membership in the Mecca Defence Agreement is strictly restricted to foundational charter members, prohibiting any other regional or partner states from joining future security initiatives.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

96. With reference to the development of Inland Water Transport (IWT) and National Waterways in India, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Constitution of India, the power to declare any stretch of an inland waterway as a 'National Waterway' lies exclusively with the Union Parliament by law.

2. The Jalvahak Scheme provides financial incentives to cargo operators to encourage a modal shift of freight from road and rail to inland waterways.

3. Upon declaring a river stretch as a National Waterway, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) automatically acquires sole statutory ownership over the river's water resources, overriding state irrigation rights.

4. Under the National Waterways Act, 2016, all 111 notified National Waterways are 100% centrally funded projects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

97. With reference to key rural schemes implemented through Women Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Namo Drone Didi scheme, Central Financial Assistance covering up to 80% of the drone package cost (subject to a maximum ceiling) is provided to selected Women SHGs for offering agricultural drone rental services to farmers.

2. The Lakhpati Didi initiative operates as a independent, standalone Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a dedicated annual budgetary allocation separate from DAY-NRLM.

3. The Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP), a sub-scheme under DAY-NRLM, supports rural SHG members in establishing non-farm micro-enterprises by building a cadre of local Community Resource Persons for Enterprise Promotion (CRP-EP).

4. Under the Aajeevika Gramin Express Yojana (AGEY), SHGs or their federations operate alternative transport services in backward rural areas using interest-free loans provided from the Community Investment Fund (CIF).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

98. With reference to the official classification and meteorological mechanisms of "Cloudburst" incidents in India, consider the following statements:

1. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), a rainfall event is officially classified as a cloudburst only when a region receives precipitation of 100 mm or more within one hour over a geographical area of approximately 20 to 30 square kilometers.

2. The core meteorological mechanism driving a cloudburst involves strong vertical updrafts within Cumulonimbus clouds that temporarily suspend heavy volumes of water droplets, preventing them from falling to the ground.

3. Because cloudbursts are strictly triggered by orographic lifting, they can’t occur in the plains and are confined to the Himalayan and Western Ghats regions.

4. Using the network of Doppler Weather Radars (DWR), the IMD can currently predict the exact location and intensity of a cloudburst at least 24 to 48 hours in advance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

99. With reference to the unique immunology of bats and their role as natural viral reservoirs, consider the following statements:

1. Bats are capable of hosting high viral loads without manifesting clinical illness, primarily due to an enhanced state of immune tolerance that suppresses excessive virus-induced inflammation rather than mounting a destructive inflammatory counterattack.

2. The metabolic adaptations required for active flight in bats generate elevated body temperatures and cellular stress, which evolutionary studies link to mechanisms that also help control viral replication and tissue damage.

3. Bats serve as natural zoonotic reservoirs for several high-consequence human pathogens, including the Ebola virus, Marburg virus, Nipah virus, and various coronaviruses (such as SARS and MERS).

4. Under standard mammalian immune response models, severe disease symptoms in humans are frequently driven by aggressive, uncontrolled inflammation, whereas bats have evolved mechanisms like dampened NLRP3 inflammasome activation to prevent this damage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

100. With reference to India's strategic nuclear energy roadmap and the development of a self-reliant domestic ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. India's long-term nuclear power trajectory remains anchored in its unique three-stage nuclear programme, which ultimately aims to harness the country’s vast thorium reserves for long-term energy independence.

2. The Nuclear Energy Mission incorporates a two-pronged strategy involving the deployment of large indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) alongside the development of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) at brownfield locations.

3. The domestic nuclear framework restricts participation in nuclear manufacturing, engineering services, and R&D exclusively to public sector enterprises.

4. India relies on imported heavy water and foreign-designed reactor pressure vessels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

General Studies Paper 1 — Mock Test 2 UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

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