General Studies Paper 1 | Mock Test 3 | UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

CSE

Sep 14

43 min read

UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 GS Paper 1 | Mock Test 3 | Current Affairs and Static Syllabus Practice | For Question Papers & Solutions PDFs, visit: https://www.csetests.com/

Note: Treat every mock test as a real exam. These tests are designed to consolidate your knowledge. Questions map core topics and current developments with static concepts. A serious review of each paper will steadily raise your score.

1. Ms. Y, the Principal of a CBSE-affiliated school, was implementing the three-language formula for the incoming Class 6 batch under NEP 2020. She found that a section of parents and local influencers were pressing the school to treat English as one of the two “Indian” languages and drop a second Bhartiya Bhasha so that the batch could continue with only English plus one regional language. Despite pressure from fee-paying stakeholders and the risk of enrolment drop, she insisted that English would count only as the foreign-language option and that two languages native to India must be taught, and she reported the deviation attempt to the Board so that the Class 6 cohort would meet the policy requirement when they later faced the Class 10 examination in the third language.

Which one among the following features of the three-language formula under NEP 2020 was most strongly demonstrated by Ms. Y’s actions?

(a) Compulsory study of Hindi in all States

(b) Flexibility allowing any three languages chosen by parents

(d) English as the sole medium of instruction from Class 6

2. With reference to the proposed new Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly and Secretariat complex, consider the following statements:

1. The proposed foreshore site at Pattinapakkam lies near the Adyar river and the Bay of Bengal.

2. Being a foreshore site, the project would have to satisfy Coastal Regulation Zone norms and flood-plain tests before construction can begin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements:

1. A south-west monsoon deficit in the upper catchment cuts headwater runoff into rivers.

2. Poor rains over catchments lower reservoir inflows and delay downstream irrigation releases.

3. Upper-catchment shortfall can persist even if plains later receive scattered showers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. In an industrial hub facing wage stagnation, an unorganised union announced a peaceful rally near the State Assembly for higher minimum wages and safer workplaces. Local police detained the organisers under the National Security Act, treating likely traffic disruption as a threat to the security of the State. Civil liberties groups argued that a labour rally is not, by itself, a ground for preventive detention. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Security Act authorises preventive detention within the scheme of Article 22, not punishment after a proved offence.

2. A peaceful labour rally does not automatically amount to a threat to the security of the State.

3. Article 22(1)’s right to consult a lawyer applies in the same way to NSA detainees as to persons under ordinary arrest.

4. The detaining authority’s satisfaction under the NSA cannot be examined under Articles 32 and 226.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

5. Which of the following statements regarding de-reservation is/are correct?

1. De-reservation involves converting an unfilled reserved seat into an unreserved seat when no eligible reserved candidate is available.

2. The Supreme Court has held that de-reservation of reserved faculty posts in universities requires prior approval of the Central Government.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the recent seizure of orangutans and wildlife smuggling routes into India:

I. Orangutans are not native to India and their presence indicates an international smuggling chain, possibly routed through Southeast Asia.

II. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is investigating the find as a possible sea-then-land smuggling route through the north-east, via Myanmar or Bangladesh.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. Orangutans are great apes found naturally only in the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra, making their detection in India a clear case of illegal wildlife trafficking.

2. The north-east border of India, particularly the Indo-Myanmar border, is a known transit corridor for wildlife smuggling due to its porous nature and proximity to Southeast Asian markets.

3. The WCCB has stated that the seized orangutans may have been transported by sea to a neighbouring country and then smuggled overland into India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following pairs:

Famous offering / prasad Associated temple

1. Aravana Payasam Sabarimala Ayyappa Temple, Kerala

2. Palpayasam Ambalapuzha Sree Krishna Temple, Kerala

3. Akkaravadisal Guruvayur Sri Krishna Temple, Kerala

4. Mathadi Jagannath Temple, Puri, Odisha

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

8. Consider the following statements regarding the legal validity of welfare cess notices and state legislation:

1. A State law requires a separate commencement notification in the official gazette specifying its enforcement date even after receiving the Governor's assent.

2. Executive circulars and collection notices issued before a parent statute is officially brought into force are legally unsustainable.

3. The executive branch can substitute statutory commencement notifications through internal administrative orders or subordinate enforcement circulars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court has asked FSSAI to indicate a clear timeline for front-of-pack warning labels.

2. FSSAI has proposed red hexagonal labels for packaged foods high in sugar, salt or saturated fat.

3. The Court accepted industry reformulation time as enough reason to keep Phase II open-ended.

4. The proposed nutrient thresholds are linked to ICMR-NIN Dietary Guidelines for Indians, 2024.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

10. Enmetazobactam was recently in the news regarding:

(a) India’s first invented novel chemical entity (a β-lactamase inhibitor) approved by the US FDA, in combination with cefepime, for complicated urinary tract infections and other resistant Gram-negative infections

(b) A new oral vaccine against multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis cleared by WHO

(d) It is a high-yield genetically modified crop variety engineered to withstand prolonged flash floods in upper river catchments.

11. The “BRICS Delhi agenda” was recently in the news regarding:

1. Reforming multilateral financial institutions and expanding the scope of the New Development Bank (NDB).

2. Adoption of a common BRICS currency to replace the US dollar in intra-bloc trade

3. Formal merger of BRICS with the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

4. Launch of a permanent BRICS military alliance for collective security

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

12. Hasdeo-Aranya was recently in the news regarding:

(a) Auction of the Tara coal block in a biodiversity-rich forest of Chhattisgarh.

(b) Notification of India’s first community-conserved marine protected area off the Odisha coast.

(d) Declaration of a new tiger reserve in the Western Ghats of Karnataka.

13. Consider the following pairs:

Elephant corridor / reserve landscape State

1. Lemru – Badalkhol – Tamor Pingla Chhattisgarh

2. Chilla – Motichur Uttarakhand

3. Siju – Rewak Meghalaya

4. Edayarhalli – Doddasampige Karnataka

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

14. With reference to the settlement of disputes over the name and reserved election symbol of a recognised political party, consider the following statements:

1. Article 324 of the Constitution vests in the Election Commission the superintendence, direction and control of elections, which has been read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Conduct of Elections Rules to support the Symbols Order.

2. Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the Commission to decide which rival section or group of a recognised political party is entitled to the party’s name and reserved symbol, or that none of them is.

3. In Sadiq Ali v. Election Commission of India, the Supreme Court upheld Paragraph 15 and indicated that the Commission may apply tests such as the party’s aims and objects, the party constitution, and majority in the organisational and legislative wings.

4. Registration of a political party under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 automatically confers a reserved symbol that cannot be frozen even if rival factions both claim to be the original party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. “Joda Ghash Phool” was recently in the news regarding:

(a) The restoration of a colonial-era botanical garden in Kolkata.

(b) The GI tag granted to a traditional grass-flower craft of the Sundarbans.

(d) A dispute over the official election symbol of a political party in West Bengal after an internal split.

16. With reference to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, consider the following statements:

1. Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.

2. The Act was amended in 2006 to permit justification by truth as a valid defence in contempt proceedings if it is in the public interest and the plea is bona fide.

3. The maximum punishment that can be imposed under the Act is simple imprisonment for two years or a fine of ₹25,000, or both.

4. Fair and accurate reporting of a judicial proceeding and fair criticism of a case that has been finally decided do not constitute contempt.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. Consider the following statement:

“Ladakh is proposed to get a sui generis elected body under Article 371 with legislative, executive and financial powers.”

This proposal, recently in the news, relates to:

(a) Grant of full Statehood to Ladakh with a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers

(b) Inclusion of Ladakh in the Sixth Schedule with Autonomous District Councils as the highest elected tier

(c) A unique Union Territory-level elected body (neither Statehood nor a conventional UT with legislature) under a customised Article 371 provision, sitting above the Hill Councils

(d) Restoration of the pre-2019 Jammu and Kashmir Assembly’s jurisdiction over Ladakh

18. The Supreme Court recently issued notice concerning the closure of Delhi Metro stations during student protests over NEET-UG. The matter primarily raises which of the following issues?

(a) Whether a public utility such as the Metro can be shut down without specific statutory power or a formal order, and whether such closure was a disproportionate restriction on the public’s right to movement

(b) Whether NEET-UG 2026 should be cancelled nationwide and a re-examination conducted under Supreme Court supervision

(c) Whether the Metro Railways (Operation and Maintenance) Act should be transferred from the Union List to the State List

(d) Whether facial-recognition evidence collected during the protests can be used to register FIRs against all participants

19. Consider the following statements regarding the nutritional quality of plant and animal proteins:

1. Animal proteins are always “complete” proteins, while plant proteins are always “incomplete” and lack one or more essential amino acids.

2. Plant-based foods collectively contain all essential amino acids, though in varying proportions across different plant sources.

3. Combining complementary plant proteins, such as cereals with pulses, can provide a complete amino acid profile comparable to that of many animal proteins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements about the use of AI chatbots as a first stop in mental-health distress:

I. AI chatbots can offer immediate, low-cost, and stigma-free initial support to individuals experiencing mental-health distress, particularly where professional care is scarce.

II. AI chatbots are a complete substitute for trained mental-health professionals and can safely manage crisis situations, including suicidal ideation.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. Reports indicate that users increasingly turn to AI chatbots for emotional support due to their round-the-clock availability and anonymity.

2. Studies have documented instances where AI chatbots failed to detect crisis signals, giving inappropriate or harmful responses to users in distress.

3. Mental-health experts caution that chatbots lack clinical training, cannot build therapeutic alliance, and may reinforce delusions or provide unsafe advice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Consider the following statements about the idea of an “Orwellian dystopia” in political and constitutional discussion:

I. An Orwellian dystopia is marked by close state watch over daily life, control of language and facts, and the shrinking of privacy and lawful dissent.

II. The phrase comes from George Orwell’s novel Nineteen Eighty-Four, which shows a regime that claims the power to fix truth, rewrite history and rule personal life.

Which of the following pieces of information support/supports the above statements?

1. The novel uses devices such as “Big Brother,” “Newspeak” and “doublethink” to show how words and records can be turned into tools of social control.

2. The label is used today for mass surveillance projects, facial-recognition systems and internet shutdowns that squeeze civil liberties.

3. In India the same vocabulary appears when courts test State action against the right to privacy under Article 21 and the freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a).

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

22. With reference to Linear Alkylbenzene Sulfonate (LAS) and Benzisothiazolinone (BIT), consider the following statements:

1. LAS is an anionic surfactant used mainly in laundry detergents, dishwashing liquids and household cleaners to lift grease and dirt.

2. BIT is an isothiazolinone preservative used at low concentrations to prevent bacterial and fungal growth in water-based products such as detergents, paints and adhesives.

3. Concentrated LAS can irritate skin and eyes; at typical use-dilution in finished detergents it is generally not considered a contact sensitiser.

4. BIT is a known skin sensitiser and can cause allergic contact dermatitis in susceptible persons, which is why its use in leave-on cosmetics is tightly restricted in some jurisdictions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

23. The Supreme Court decisions in State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala (1957), State of Andhra Pradesh v. K. Satyanarayana (1968) and Dr K.R. Lakshmanan v. State of Tamil Nadu (1996) are frequently cited together in the context of:

(a) The constitutional distinction between games of mere chance (gambling) and games in which skill predominates.

(b) The power of States to impose a cap on prize money in inter-State lotteries.

(d) The exclusive jurisdiction of the Union to regulate online fantasy sports under the Information Technology Act.

24. The “My Feed, My Way” rule, recently in the news, is related to:

(a) A TRAI regulation in India requiring all social media and OTT platforms to offer only chronological timelines to every registered user

(b) An EU Digital Services Act clause that completely bans recommendation algorithms for all users below eighteen years of age

(c) A draft Australian Digital Duty of Care proposal requiring platforms to let users aged 16 and above choose between an algorithm-driven personalised feed and a feed showing only accounts they follow

(d) A US Federal Trade Commission rule mandating platforms to publicly disclose the exact ranking weights used in every content-recommendation algorithm

25. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY):

1. It is a central sector, voluntary, and contributory pension scheme designed to provide old-age social security to small and marginal farmers aged 18–40 years.

2. A fixed monthly pension of ₹5,000 starts automatically upon reaching 58 years.

3. The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation acts as the pension fund manager.

4. The Central Government matches the subscriber’s monthly contribution on a 1:1 basis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

26. With reference to the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It replaces the 1891 Act and treats cloud-stored banking records as admissible evidence.

2. A court may summon bank officials even if it records no special cause in writing.

3. Certified copies of bankers’ books may be authenticated by digital or electronic signatures.

4. Its provisions apply only to scheduled commercial banks and cannot be extended further.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

27. With reference to Deep Ocean Mission hardware used for studies inside and beyond India’s Exclusive Economic Zone, consider the following statements:

1. Sagar Manthan can deploy AUVs and ROVs for mineral and biodiversity mapping.

2. Matsya-6000 is an unmanned drone that mines nodules at twenty thousand metres.

3. One mission vertical studies energy and freshwater generation from the ocean.

4. All Deep Ocean Mission hardware may operate beyond two hundred nautical miles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

28. Consider the following statements regarding India's coal mining regime:

1. A captive mine must use its entire output in a linked steel, power, or cement plant without selling in the open market.

2. Commercial mining after the 2020 coal auctions allows private players to sell coal in the open market without end-use restrictions.

3. The 2018 amendment permitted captive miners to sell 25% of their output in the open market.

4. The revenue-sharing model in commercial coal auctions replaced the fixed rupee-per-tonne model to encourage wider participation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

29. Consider the following statements with reference to local-currency trade and New Development Bank rupee lines:

1. NDB plans onshore rupee bonds to finance Indian projects in local currency.

2. Rupee NDB loans legally replace the dollar in all BRICS merchandise trade.

3. Local-currency NDB lending aims to reduce borrowers’ exchange-rate mismatch risk.

4. NDB rupee issuance requires India to exit the IMF’s Special Drawing Rights basket.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

30. Consider the following statements about the Thirukkural (Kural):

1. It consists of 1,330 couplets organised into 133 chapters, with each chapter containing exactly ten couplets.

2. The couplets are composed in the Kural Venpa metre, with seven cirs in total—four in the first line and three in the second.

3. The work is divided into three sections: Aram (Virtue), Porul (Wealth), and Inbam (Love), with 38, 70, and 25 chapters respectively.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

31. Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific marine productivity observed by Oceansat-3:

1. The Ocean Colour Monitor-3 (OCM-3) and Scatterometer aboard EOS-06 tracked a drop in chlorophyll-a across the tropical Pacific.

2. El Niño conditions weaken the equatorial easterly trade winds, suppressing the upwelling of nutrient-rich subsurface waters.

3. The area of elevated chlorophyll-a expanded westward between April and June 2026 as El Niño developed.

4. Phytoplankton decline primarily affects deep-sea biodiversity, with minimal impact on surface ocean food webs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

32. Consider the following statements regarding India's foreign exchange reserves:

1. India recently became the fourth-largest holder of foreign exchange reserves globally, surpassing Russia.

2. The record weekly surge was primarily driven by inflows under the RBI's concessional forex swap facilities, including FCNR(B) deposits.

3. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) constitute the largest component of India's forex reserves, and their value is expressed in US dollar terms without reflecting non-US currency movements.

4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and the reserve position with the International Monetary Fund are excluded by law from being counted as part of a country's forex reserves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only

33. Consider the following statements regarding the viral 1980s-style AI portrait trend:

1. Uploaded photographs lose all EXIF metadata and biometric facial data once the generated image is downloaded.

2. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, a face in a photograph is personal data and the service storing it is a data fiduciary.

3. Temporary Chat and “Improve the model for everyone” settings have no effect on how long providers retain uploaded images.

4. Personality-rights orders of Indian High Courts treat only the private upload, not later public posting, as a civil wrong.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only

34. Consider the following statements regarding the India–Russia talks held on the eve of the 18th BRICS Summit:

1. The two sides reviewed the Programme for Economic Cooperation 2030 and set a bilateral trade target of $100 billion by 2030.

2. At the BRICS Business Forum, Russia expressed readiness to help build the Arctic Transport Corridor and the International North–South Transport Corridor.

3. The Arctic Transport Corridor serves as Russia's high-latitude sea lane designed for transporting energy and bulk cargo during navigable periods.

4. Civil nuclear cooperation between the two nations includes fuel-cycle support and project collaboration modeled on the Kudankulam nuclear power plant.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

35. Mayyun Island was recently in the news regarding:

(a) Construction of a new deep-water port by China under the Belt and Road Initiative

(b) Seizure by Houthi forces, tightening control over the Bab el-Mandeb Strait

(d) Declaration as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for its volcanic biodiversity

36. Ms. X is a senior trade policy official in the Ministry of Commerce of an Emerging Market and Developing Economy (EMDE). During a multilateral negotiation, a major developed country unilaterally imposed steep tariffs and non-tariff measures on her country's exports, citing domestic security concerns. These measures were not sanctioned by the World Trade Organization (WTO) and disproportionately harmed her country's key export sectors, causing significant economic disruption. Her government is considering a response. Ms. X believes that while bilateral retaliation is an option, the appropriate course is to challenge the measures at the WTO Dispute Settlement Body and simultaneously build a coalition of affected EMDEs to advocate for reform of unilateral trade practices.

What amongst the following should Ms. X recommend?

1. Immediately impose retaliatory tariffs on the developed country's exports without waiting for WTO dispute settlement proceedings.

2. Initiate a formal dispute at the WTO Dispute Settlement Body challenging the legality of the unilateral tariffs and non-tariff measures.

3. Form a coalition of like-minded Emerging Markets and Developing Economies to collectively push for strengthening multilateral rules against unilateral trade measures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Consider the following statements regarding front-of-pack nutrition labelling (FoPL) proposals for packaged foods in India:

1. The proposed warning label system uses a red hexagonal symbol carrying declarations such as "High Sugar," "High Salt," or "High Fat."

2. Under the proposed two-phase rollout, Phase I applies the warning only to products high in two or more nutrients of concern.

3. The thresholds for determining what qualifies as "high" are based on the Dietary Guidelines for Indians, 2024, issued by ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition.

4. The proposed warning label system is mandatory for all packaged food products without any exemptions.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Amendment Rules, 2026:

1. E-commerce platforms must mandatorily display the importer's details and country of origin for all imported goods.

2. The designated grievance officer must acknowledge consumer complaints within 48 hours and resolve them within one month.

3. The rules prohibit the use of dark patterns and hidden bundled fees that distort purchasing choices.

4. E-commerce entities are legally exempted from appointing a grievance officer if all registered sellers are located abroad.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

39. Consider the following statements regarding the expansion of BRICS:

1. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the UAE became full members in 2024.

2. Indonesia became the eleventh full member of BRICS in 2025.

3. Argentina accepted the invitation extended in 2023 and joined the grouping along with the five new members in 2024.

4. After the two-stage expansion, BRICS comprises eleven full member states.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

40. Consider the following statements about the PRASHAD and Swadesh Darshan schemes:

I. PRASHAD funds the development of infrastructure at identified pilgrimage destinations, while Swadesh Darshan develops theme-based tourist circuits that may span multiple States.

II. Both schemes operate under the Ministry of Tourism and draw from separate budget windows for the same pilgrim and heritage map.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. A religious site can receive PRASHAD funding for its core pilgrim amenities while the wider region is covered under a Swadesh Darshan circuit.

2. PRASHAD is limited to sites of national importance, whereas Swadesh Darshan covers only State-specific circuits.

3. The two schemes are complementary instruments that together address both destination-level and circuit-level tourism infrastructure.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Yaman in Hindustani music?

(a) Mayamalavagoula

(b) Kharaharapriya

(d) Mechakalyani

42. The geopolitical significance of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden is fiercely contested by regional and global powers for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Facilitating the direct underwater telecommunications cable grid linking Europe to East Asia.

(b) Ensuring uninterrupted transit of global hydrocarbon shipments and maritime trade between the Suez Canal and the Indian Ocean.

(d) Establishing a unified naval command center by a hegemonic power to establish its global naval power.

43. Consider the following assertion:

PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) schools are existing government-managed institutions selected to function as exemplar schools of NEP 2020 and to mentor neighbouring schools, rather than a nationwide programme for building new private schools.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. States/UTs must first sign an MoU with the Centre agreeing to implement NEP 2020, after which an eligible pool is identified from UDISE+ data and schools compete through a Challenge Mode.

2. Only elementary and secondary/senior secondary schools managed by the Centre, States/UTs or local bodies, including eligible KVs and NVs with a UDISE+ code, can be selected, with an upper ceiling of about 14,500 schools.

3. The scheme is a Central Sector scheme under which the Centre constructs new greenfield campuses and hands them over to state governments for management.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

44. The Core Urban Region (Integrated Governance) law is meant to replace the Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation Act, 1955, primarily for which one of the following reasons?

(a) To provide a single uniform legal framework for the three municipal corporations constituting the Core Urban Region within the Outer Ring Road.

(b) To merge Greater Hyderabad, Cyberabad and Malkajgiri Municipal Corporations into one mega corporation.

(d) To transfer civic functions of the municipal corporations to the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority.

45. Consider the following statements:

I. The Atrium at Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ), Visakhapatnam, houses the BRICS Biodesign Centre for need-driven innovation involving clinical expertise, design, engineering, prototyping and translation.

II. AMTZ is the only campus that houses the Assistive Technology Rehabilitation Instrumentation Centre (ATRIUM), focused on research, prototyping, testing and manufacturing of affordable assistive devices such as prosthetics and mobility aids.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Indigenous manufacturing and import substitution in medical devices.

2. Cross-border collaboration for affordable MedTech solutions among emerging economies.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Consider the following statements :

I. A key operative of an organised crime syndicate, wanted in cases of murder, UAPA, Arms Act and NDPS offences, was recently brought back to India after using a forged passport to flee the country.

II. The six-month intelligence-led manhunt, conducted in coordination with central agencies and international partners, culminated in the first extradition of a fugitive from a European country (Moldova).

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Operation All Out

2. First extradition under an India–EU framework agreement

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Consider the following statements :

I. It supported a sovereign, independent State of Palestine within the internationally recognised 1967 borders, including East Jerusalem.

II. It reaffirmed that a just and lasting solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict can only be achieved by peaceful means and depends on fulfilment of the legitimate rights of the Palestinian people, including the rights to self-determination and return.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. India’s long-standing official position on the two-state solution

2. New Delhi Declaration of the 18th BRICS Summit (2026)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements:

I. The India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor, announced on the sidelines of the G20 Summit in New Delhi in September 2023, comprises an eastern corridor linking India to the Arabian Gulf and a northern corridor linking the Gulf to Europe through a combination of ports and railways.

II. The original Memorandum of Understanding was signed by India, the United States, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, France, Germany, Italy and the European Union, and envisages railways together with electricity cables, clean hydrogen pipelines and digital connectivity along the route.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Creation of an alternative multimodal route intended to reduce transit time and cost relative to the traditional Suez Canal sea route

2. Conclusion of a legally binding treaty in which Jordan and Israel were original signatories

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Which of the following statements regarding recent India–Brazil trade discussions is/are correct?

1. Officials of both countries have set a target of raising bilateral trade to USD 30 billion by 2030, after it reached about USD 15 billion in 2025–26.

2. Brazil’s Foreign Minister stated that this target could be crossed well before 2030 if commercial deals involving Embraer, Vale and WEG materialise.

3. Embraer, Vale and WEG are, respectively, Brazil’s leading aircraft manufacturer, mining company and producer of electrical motors and generators, all of which already have or are expanding operations linked to India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Which of the following statements on the BRICS GxP White Paper is/are correct?

1. It was welcomed in the New Delhi Declaration of the 18th BRICS Summit (2026) as a document consolidating best practices of regulatory experience and technical approaches among BRICS medical products regulatory authorities.

2. It is a legally binding treaty that replaces national GxP frameworks (GMP, GCP, GLP, GDP, etc.) of member countries with a single uniform code.

3. It is linked to the effort to extend the existing Memorandum of Understanding on cooperation in the field of medical products regulation to the regulatory authorities of all BRICS member countries.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Consider the following statements with reference to BRICS cooperation against illicit drug trafficking:

I. The New Delhi Declaration of the 18th BRICS Summit expressed concern that illicit drug production, trafficking and abuse threaten public security, health, safety and sustainable development of States, and welcomed the Guwahati Declaration as a means of facilitating operational and technical cooperation among BRICS anti-drug agencies.

II. The Guwahati Declaration, adopted in July 2026 by the Heads of BRICS Anti-Drug Agencies, called for timely exchange of information, intelligence and best practices, consistent with national laws and international obligations, and for the use of innovative technologies, digital tools and data-driven approaches against trafficking networks.

III. Effective BRICS action against narcotics networks can be secured solely through a single legally binding treaty that overrides national laws and dispenses with real-time intelligence sharing.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.

2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

52. What is the primary purpose of the BRICS Troika arrangement, as proposed in the New Delhi Declaration?

(a) To create a permanent secretariat for the grouping.

(b) To ensure continuity of policy and implementation of initiatives across rotating presidencies.

(d) To replace the United Nations Security Council with a BRICS-led body.

53. The Seafarers’ Emergency Support Network, proposed by India at the 18th BRICS Summit (2026), is intended to:

(a) Harmonise BRICS shipping tariffs and create a common merchant-marine flag

(b) Connect maritime authorities and diplomatic missions to provide distress alerts, medical assistance, family information and evacuation

(d) Mandate compulsory military escorts for all BRICS-flagged commercial vessels

54. Which of the following statements regarding the WTO accession of Ethiopia and Iran and the reform of the IMF and the World Bank is/are correct?

1. Ethiopia and Iran remain WTO observers; Ethiopia's Working Party process has advanced, whereas Iran's Working Party has not yet held a meeting.

2. The 16th General Review of Quotas provided for a 50 per cent equiproportional increase and required 85 per cent of total quotas to consent.

3. The 2025 World Bank Shareholding Review and the 17th General Review of IMF Quotas have already raised emerging economies' voting share above advanced economies.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

55. Consider the following statements about Koraput Arabica coffee:

I. Coffee cultivation in the region traces back to the 1930s, when the Maharaja of Jeypore introduced the crop; the organised ‘Koraput Coffee’ brand was launched in 2019 by the Tribal Development Co-operative Corporation of Odisha Ltd. (TDCCOL).

II. The coffee is predominantly shade-grown Arabica, cultivated by tribal communities such as the Paraja and Kondh on the Eastern Ghats highlands of Koraput district at elevations of roughly 900–1,500 metres in red laterite soils.

III. Koraput coffee has a standalone Geographical Indication tag that is legally distinct from the 2019 Araku Valley Arabica GI covering parts of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that recent institutional branding and procurement have built on a much older, locally introduced plantation history.

2. Statement II suggests that agro-climatic conditions and tribal agroforestry practices together shape the crop’s identity as a specialty Arabica.

3. Statement III suggests that Koraput coffee already enjoys exclusive GI protection separate from any neighbouring coffee origin.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

56. Consider the following assertion:

The Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005 confers on the Commission civil-court-like powers to summon records and recommend remedial steps, but its recommendations are not binding on the government.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. The Commission has the powers of a civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

2. The Commission can call for records, summon witnesses, and requisition public documents, but cannot enforce its recommendations as a decree.

3. The Commission is required to submit an annual report to the Central Government, which must lay it before Parliament along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on its recommendations.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. In which one among the following is arecoline, recently in the news, naturally found?

(a) Betel nut (Areca catechu)

(b) Opium poppy (Papaver somniferum)

(d) Tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum)

58. Which of the following statements about the finding that charged water droplets can breach Teflon-coated metal surfaces is/are correct?

1. Water droplets can acquire an electric charge spontaneously by sliding over insulating surfaces such as plant leaves, PVC or polystyrene.

2. Neutral (uncharged) water droplets produce the same microscopic pitting of Teflon-coated copper as charged droplets after a few thousand impacts.

3. A charged droplet can generate a local electric field strong enough to cause dielectric breakdown of a thin insulating coating, after which chemical corrosion of the underlying metal can begin.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following statements:

I. Rapid physical erosion in glaciated Himalayan catchments exposes pyrite to oxygen and water, generating sulphuric acid that reacts with carbonate rocks and releases carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

II. Dual sulphur–oxygen isotope measurements from the upper Indus basin show that the rate of this carbon-dioxide release can exceed the rate of carbon-dioxide uptake by silicate weathering, making steep mountainous tracts net geological sources of carbon dioxide.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Re-evaluation of the Himalaya as a long-term carbon sink

2. Role of lithology and glacial grinding in modulating the net carbon-cycle effect of mountain building

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Which one of the following statements is correct under the RBI's scale-based regulation for NBFCs?

(a) Becoming debt-free automatically permits surrender of a Core Investment Company licence.

(b) Charitable-trust ownership exempts an Upper Layer NBFC from mandatory listing.

(d) Assets below one lakh crore place every CIC only in the Middle Layer.

61. Consider the following statements regarding the recent diplomatic tensions between Eritrea and Ethiopia:

I. Eritrea accused Ethiopia of actively destabilising the Horn of Africa by hosting, training, and financing subversive proxy groups with a regime-change agenda.

II. Ethiopia has sought sovereign access to the Red Sea, with Eritrea claiming that landlocked Ethiopia has designs on its port of Assab.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. The breakdown of the 2018 rapprochement between the two neighbours has revived long-standing maritime and territorial disputes.

2. The conflict is purely bilateral and has no implications for broader regional stability or global shipping lanes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following countries:

1. Ethiopia

2. South Sudan

3. Sudan

4. Uganda

5. Djibouti

Which of the above share a direct land border with Eritrea?

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3 and 5 only

63. With reference to the United Nations 1267 sanctions regime, consider the following statements:

1. It was first imposed under Chapter VII of the UN Charter against the Taliban in 1999.

2. The Sanctions Committee comprises all 15 members of the Security Council and decides by consensus.

3. Since 2011 the 1267 list has covered only ISIL (Da’esh), Al-Qaida and associated persons, not the Taliban.

4. Listing automatically requires a prior conviction by the International Criminal Court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

64. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Articles 341 and 342 empower the President to specify Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for each State and Union Territory.

2. Article 340 provides for a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.

3. A Census enumeration of castes by itself creates a new constitutionally enforceable quota.

4. Lists under Articles 341, 342 and 342A are notified through a Census notification of the Registrar General.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

65. Consider the following statements about the Ramanathaswamy Temple, Rameswaram:

1. It is one of the twelve Jyotirlinga temples and is located on Rameswaram Island in the Gulf of Mannar.

2. The temple is renowned for its corridors, with the third corridor being the longest, featuring over 1,200 intricately carved pillars.

3. The temple was expanded substantially during the 17th century under the Setupati rulers of Ramanathapuram.

4. The temple's architecture reflects a blend of Dravidian and Nagara styles, with the tallest gopuram built during the Chola period.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

66. Consider the following statements about 'Bigorexia' (muscle dysmorphia):

1. It is a form of body dysmorphic disorder in which a person becomes obsessively preoccupied with the idea that their body is insufficiently muscular.

2. It predominantly affects men and often leads to excessive weightlifting, rigid dietary control, and use of anabolic steroids.

3. It is classified as an eating disorder under the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).

4. People with bigorexia typically recognise that their muscularity is adequate and do not experience clinically significant distress.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

67. Consider the following statements with reference to Ashoka's edicts:

1. In the Major and Minor Rock Edicts and the Pillar Edicts, dhamma is set out as a public moral code addressed to many pasandas, not as varna-based duty.

2. These inscriptions treat Brahmanas and Shramanas as religious professionals and do not list the four varnas as a governing scheme.

3. Ashokan dhamma is identical in social design to dharma in the Apastamba Dharmasutra and the Manusmriti.

4. The edicts are contemporary state speech that instruct officials on welfare, restraint in killing, and conduct toward sects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

68. Consider the following statements regarding the flood situation in Bihar during the 2026 monsoon season:

I. Bihar received significantly below-normal rainfall during the monsoon season, yet large areas experienced severe flooding.

II. The Ganga, Gandak, Kosi, Budhi Gandak, Punpun and Ghaghra rivers crossed danger levels on different stretches.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. A rainfall deficit in a river basin does not automatically preclude flooding, as flood severity depends on upstream discharges and drainage congestion.

2. High water levels in the Ganga created a backwater effect that prevented tributaries like the Gandak and Punpun from emptying into it, causing water to pile up.

3. The flooding in Bihar was primarily caused by localised cloudbursts and urban drainage failure, not by riverine dynamics.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

69. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The first OPU-IVF Badri calf was born at ICAR-NDRI, Karnal, to a Badri recipient.

(b) Oocytes collected from elite Badri cows were fertilised with semen of a superior Badri bull.

(d) Cloned Badri embryos have already produced live calves under the same programme.

70. Consider the following statements regarding the utilization of steel slag in road infrastructure in India:

1. Processed steel slag can replace natural stone aggregates across multiple pavement layers, curbing ecological damage from quarrying.

2. The world's longest road built with processed steel-slag aggregates is in Raigarh, Chhattisgarh.

3. Steel-slag road technology typically requires thicker bituminous layers due to lower structural load capacity.

4. The initiative aligns with India's Waste-to-Wealth and circular economy objectives.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

71. Consider the following statements:

I. Methyl alcohol (methanol) poisoning occurs when methanol is ingested, and it is metabolised in the liver into formaldehyde and formic acid, which cause severe metabolic acidosis and optic nerve damage.

II. The primary antidotes for methanol poisoning are fomepizole or ethanol, which competitively inhibit the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, along with haemodialysis in severe cases.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Illicitly distilled liquor and adulterated alcohol beverages as a major public health hazard.

2. The need for stringent regulation and public awareness to prevent hooch tragedies.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Consider the following statements:

I. The drink 'mocha' takes its name from Al-Mokha, a historic Red Sea port in Yemen that once controlled the export of coffee.

II. Tradition holds that a Sufi pilgrim carried fertile coffee seeds to the Chandragiri Hills in Chikkamagaluru, Karnataka, starting India's Arabica crop.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. The Indian Ocean coffee trade network linking Yemen, Surat, and the Karnataka highlands.

2. Heritage branding and Geographical Indication marketing of Chikkamagaluru Arabica.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Which one of the following statements about the draft Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) notification for the Western Ghats and its implications is not correct?

(a) The draft ESA notification aims to regulate developmental activities such as mining, quarrying, and large-scale construction across identified regions in the Western Ghats.

(b) Local residents and hill panchayats in districts like Kottayam have raised objections out of concern that stringent land-use restrictions would impact their traditional livelihoods and land rights.

(d) The Kasturirangan and Gadgil committee reports form the foundational scientific baseline used by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to delineate ecologically sensitive boundaries.

74. Which one of the following statements about the UN Secretary-General's remarks on distorted power and the stalled Security Council reform is not correct?

(a) The UN Secretary-General has stated that global institutions must reflect the world as it is today, not as it was 80 years ago, including reform of the Security Council.

(b) The Secretary-General has highlighted the historic injustice of denying Africa permanent seats on the Security Council.

(c) The Secretary-General has proposed that the veto power of the five permanent members be abolished through a General Assembly resolution.

(d) The Secretary-General has acknowledged that Security Council reform remains difficult because it requires the five permanent members to agree to dilute their own power.

75. Which one of the following statements about the UN General Assembly’s “Correct the Map” resolution and subsequent UN comments on maps is not correct?

(a) The resolution, led by Togo with African Union support, is non-binding and encourages equal-area projections (such as Equal Earth) so that landmasses—especially Africa—are not distorted as they are on the Mercator projection.

(b) The United States was the only member to vote against the resolution; several other members abstained, and India voted in favour while stating that its vote did not endorse any particular projection or any depiction of national boundaries.

(c) After India objected to anomalies in a world map used around the resolution process, the UN Secretary-General stated that the United Nations issues no official map that defines borders and that the resolution itself is not a map.

(d) The resolution officially replaces all Mercator maps in UN organs, schools and technology platforms and constitutes the United Nations’ official political map of international boundaries, including a final settlement of disputed territories.

76. Which of the following countries have signed contracts to acquire the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile from India?

1. Malaysia

2. Philippines

3. Vietnam

4. Indonesia

5. Thailand

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

77. Which of the following bodies or provisions are associated with the institutional framework established or strengthened under the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025?

1. National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)

2. National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports

3. National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL)

4. Compulsory jurisdiction and direct management under the International Olympic Committee (IOC) executive board

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

78. With reference to the methodologies and administrative mechanisms involved in demographic and socio-economic enumeration in India, consider the following statements:

1. The decennial Census in India is conducted under the legal framework of the Census Act, 1948, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

2. The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) conducted in 2011 differed from the traditional decennial Census as it was aimed at generating individual-level targeted welfare benefit data rather than aggregate demographic statistics.

3. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, 'Census' is listed as an exclusive subject under the Union List (List I).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

79. With reference to the Mangarh Massacre of 1913, consider the following statements:

1. The massacre took place in the present-day state of Rajasthan during a gathering of the Bhil tribal community.

2. The movement was led by social reformer Govind Guru against forced labor and oppressive feudal taxes.

3. The site is officially designated as a 'Monument of National Importance' under the AMASR Act, 1958.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

80. With reference to tribal reform movements and anti-colonial resistance in late 19th and early 20th century India, consider the following statements regarding the Bhagat Movement:

1. The movement was initiated by Govind Guru among the Bhil tribals of the Rajputana and Gujarat regions.

2. It was strictly a socio-religious reform movement that advocated vegetarianism, teetotalism, and monotheism, avoiding any critique of feudal or British authorities.

3. The movement's socio-economic grievances eventually led to a major standoff with British forces at Mangarh Hill in 1913.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

81. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle abroad and international anti-colonial movements in the 1920s, consider the following statements:

1. The League Against Imperialism (LAI) was established following a global anti-colonial congress held in Brussels in 1927, with its international headquarters established in Berlin.

2. Indian revolutionary Virendranath Chattopadhyaya served as the international secretary of the League Against Imperialism.

3. Jawaharlal Nehru attended the 1927 Brussels Congress as a representative of the Indian National Congress.

4. The League Against Imperialism was founded under the direct leadership and presidency of Mahatma Gandhi to coordinate global non-violent movements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. With reference to the inter-state boundary disputes in North-East India, consider the following statements:

1. The Gopinath Bordoloi Committee (1951) recommended transferring a vast area of foothill plains from the North-East Frontier Tracts (NEFA) to the administration of Assam.

2. Under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution, the President can establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states.

3. The power to alter the boundaries or change the names of states rests exclusively with the concerned State Legislative Assemblies passing a unanimous resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. With reference to polymer recycling technologies and eco-friendly construction materials, consider the following statements:

1. Low-Density Polyethylene (LDPE), commonly used in flexible milk sachets, is a thermosetting polymer that cannot be remelted or reshaped once molded.

2. Plastic-waste composite bricks and building boards generally exhibit higher water absorption capacity than traditional clay bricks.

3. Upcycling shredded LDPE plastic packaging into building blocks through thermal compression helps sequester single-use plastics into long-life infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. With reference to the functional capabilities and utilities of the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), consider the following statements:

1. Through its Forward Auction Module, GeM enables government buyer organizations to act as sellers for the competitive digital disposal of scrap, e-waste, and unserviceable assets.

2. The GeM Sahay initiative provides eligible proprietorship sellers on the platform with collateral-free working capital loans against purchase orders.

3. The platform employs machine learning algorithms to detect anti-competitive practices such as bid collusion, cartelization, and deliberate order-splitting.

4. To ensure price stability, GeM mandates fixed maximum retail prices (MRP) on all catalogued items, prohibiting dynamic price comparisons or reverse auctions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

85. With reference to the environmental regulations governing river floodplains and the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), consider the following statements:

1. Under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order, a river floodplain is legally defined exclusively by its high-flood level observed once in 100 years.

2. Stratifying floodplains into prohibited and restricted zones allows controlled development in areas subjected to rare or moderate flooding, subject to environmental clearances.

3. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has statutory powers to declare "No-Development Zones" along river basins to prevent illegal encroachments and preserve natural river ecology.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

86. With reference to Kalanamak rice, consider the following statements:

1. It is a traditional scented rice variety with a distinctive black husk, which has been conferred a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and is primarily cultivated in the Terai region of northeastern Uttar Pradesh.

2. The traditional tall varieties of Kalanamak are highly susceptible to "lodging" — a condition where weak stems bend or break under the weight of the grain head — which significantly limits yield potential.

3. To mitigate lodging and enhance productivity, the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has developed semi-dwarf, high-yielding, climate-resilient varieties such as Pusa Narendra Kalanamak 1638 and 1652.

4. Despite its GI status, the export of Kalanamak rice is entirely prohibited under India's Foreign Trade Policy to protect domestic food security.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

87. With reference to modern agricultural technology and digital initiatives in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) provides financial assistance and capital subsidies for farm mechanization, including the promotion of drone-as-a-service (DaaS) for precision agriculture.

2. BharatVISTAAR functions as a centralized satellite communication network managed to monitor border-adjacent agricultural lands and restrict unauthorized drone flights.

3. The Digital Crop Survey utilizes high-resolution satellite remote sensing imagery as its primary tool for crop identification, supplemented by ground-truthing through mobile applications.

4. Under the AgriStack framework, digital IDs link unorganised workers to verified land and demographic data to streamline service delivery and institutional credit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

88. With reference to regenerative medicines and stem cell regulations in India, consider the following statements:

1. Except for standard bone marrow transplants, all other stem cell therapies are legally classified as investigational.

2. India regulates gene therapy, stem cells, and tissue products under a single, unified "Advanced Therapy Medicinal Products" (ATMPs) framework.

3. Clinical trials involving stem cell products require prior statutory clearance from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) and the National Apex Committee for Stem Cell Research and Therapy (NAC-SCRT).

4. Commercial advertising of unapproved stem cell therapies as guaranteed cures for degenerative conditions is strictly prohibited.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

89. With reference to India-US space cooperation and global lunar exploration frameworks, consider the following statements:

1. The formal invitation to ISRO to join NASA's Moon Base programme builds upon India’s earlier signing of the Artemis Accords.

2. The Artemis Accords are a set of legally binding multilateral treaties ratified under the United Nations General Assembly.

3. The NISAR mission, a joint Earth-observation satellite project between NASA and ISRO, serves as a major technological foundation for deepening bilateral space cooperation.

4. The Artemis framework prohibits participating space agencies from sharing scientific data derived from lunar exploration with non-signatory nations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

90. With reference to India's foreign trade and Balance of Payments (BoP), consider the following statements:

1. India consistently maintains a structural deficit in its merchandise trade account, driven heavily by imports of crude oil, electronics, and gold.

2. The trade balance component under the Balance of Payments framework records transactions involving both goods and services.

3. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) and External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) are standard components of India's current account.

4. A surplus in India's invisible trade account—comprising services, transfers, and investment income—neutralizes the merchandise trade deficit every fiscal year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only

(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

91. Consider the following statements about the statutory framework and judicial provisions pertaining to Tribunals in India:

1. The provisions for the creation of Administrative Tribunals were originally incorporated into the Constitution of India by the original makers through Article 323A in the year 1950.

2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is mandated by statute to make its best endeavour to dispose of applications or appeals finally within six months of filing.

3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that judicial members of tribunals must possess judicial experience, and administrative members must not hold a majority on benches deciding questions of law.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

92. Consider the following statements about the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) and the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC):

1. Both the CWMA and the CWRC are statutory bodies established by the Central Government under the provisions of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, enacted pursuant to Article 262 of the Constitution of India.

2. The primary mandate of these bodies is to enforce, monitor, and implement the final water-sharing award of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal as modified by the Supreme Court in 2018.

3. The CWMA possesses the independent legal authority to directly construct, finance, and operate major upstream hydroelectric dams and multi-purpose reservoirs across the Cauvery basin states.

4. The composition of the CWMA excludes representatives from the basin States to ensure complete political neutrality and functions under central experts appointed by the Central Government.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(b) There are three correct statements, that include statement 2.

(d) All four statements are correct.

93. Which of the following items of strategic defence hardware is/are manufactured or built in India?

1. P-75 Scorpène-class Submarines

2. Apache AH-64E Attack Helicopters

3. S-400 Triumf Air Defence Missile Systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

94. Which one of the following statements about the legal framework and applicability of laws in the Union Territory of Chandigarh is not correct?

(a) Under Section 87 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, the Central Government is empowered to extend any enactment in force in a State to the Union Territory of Chandigarh.

(b) The overwhelming majority of state-level enactments applicable to Chandigarh originate from Punjab, constituting a significantly larger share compared to those from Haryana.

(c) The application of any State legislation to Chandigarh is legally ipso facto upon its enactment by the neighbouring State legislatures.

(d) Key historical pieces of legislation such as the Capital of Punjab (Development and Regulation) Act, 1952, continue to govern core urban and administrative frameworks within the Union Territory.

95. An economic concept where a dominant market player intentionally sets product prices below average variable cost to eliminate existing competitors and deter new entrants, before subsequently raising prices once market monopoly is established, is called:

(a) Price Discrimination Model

(b) Predatory Pricing Model

(d) Transfer Pricing Model

96. With reference to global trade restructuring, environmental regulations, and economic concepts prominent in contemporary trade discourse, consider the following statements:

1. The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) functions as a trade policy instrument designed to levy a carbon price on imports of carbon-intensive goods, neutralizing competitive advantages for producers operating in jurisdictions with lax environmental standards.

2. "Friend-shoring" refers to a supply chain strategy where countries deliberately decouple and redirect manufacturing networks exclusively to domestic soil, completely eliminating international trade and cross-border dependencies.

3. The practice of "Deglobalization" or economic fragmentation is increasingly manifesting through a rise in localized industrial policies, strategic trade controls, and regional trade blocs over multilateral integration.

4. Capital expenditure (Capex) focused on green transitions and critical mineral corridors is managed entirely through grants from the World Trade Organization (WTO) without any national budgetary allocation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

97. With reference to the circular economy and recent policy initiatives in India’s textile sector, consider the following statements:

1. The "Tex-Eco Initiative" aims to support innovative technologies for textile waste management, recycling, and the development of recycled fibres and sustainable packaging.

2. A vast majority of pre-consumer textile waste in India is successfully collected and reintegrated into production cycles.

3. There is direct provision for the creation of employment under the National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM).

4. Panipat functions as one of India's major downstream recycling hubs, processing large quantities of textile waste to support circularity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

98. With reference to the recent policy initiatives and mineral framework in India, consider the following statements:

1. Dedicated Rare Earth Corridors have been announced to integrate the mining, processing, research, and manufacturing of Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPMs) across specific coastal states.

2. Rare Earth Elements (REEs) comprise a group of 17 chemically similar metallic elements, none of which is radioactive.

3. India holds substantial reserves of monazite sand, which serves as a primary source for extracting rare-earth oxides.

4. The establishment of these domestic corridors aims to reduce heavy import reliance for critical minerals vital to electric vehicles, renewable energy, and defense manufacturing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

99. With reference to rural development planning and administrative frameworks in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Ministry of Rural Development maintains a centralized, legally mandated Integrated Master Plan formulated separately for each Lok Sabha constituency to bridge infrastructure gaps.

2. Schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) and the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) are implemented through project proposals conceived by States and UTs in convergence with central initiatives.

3. District Level Development Coordination and Monitoring Committees (DISHA) are chaired by Members of Parliament to foster better coordination among local governments, state legislatures, and elected parliamentary representatives.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

100. With reference to the Urban Flood Risk Management Programme (UFRMP) in India, consider the following statements:

1. The programme is implemented with financial assistance sourced from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).

2. It also covers rural and semi-urban river basins.

3. The scope of the programme incorporates both structural measures (such as stormwater drainage and interlinking of water bodies) and non-structural measures (such as GIS-based flood early warning systems).

4. The initiative is executed entirely as a centrally funded scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

General Studies Paper 1 | Mock Test 3 | UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

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