General Studies Paper 1 | Mock Test 4 | UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

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UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 GS Paper 1 | Mock Test 4 | Current Affairs and Static Syllabus Practice | For Question Papers & Solutions PDFs, visit: https://www.csetests.com/

Note: Treat every mock test as a real exam. These tests are designed to consolidate your knowledge. Questions map core topics and current developments with static concepts. A serious review of each paper will steadily raise your score.

1. Consider the following statements: I. It was established initially as the Indian branch of the Institute of Pacific Relations and was later declared an Institution of National Importance by an Act of Parliament.

II. Its leadership by convention includes the Vice-President of India serving as its ex-officio President, focusing on international relations and foreign policy studies.

The above statements are associated with which of the following?

(a) Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS)

(b) Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA)

(d) Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

2. Consider the following statements about Saratchandra Chattopadhyay:

1. His novel Pather Dabi was proscribed by the British colonial government for its revolutionary content calling for armed resistance.

2. He was awarded the Jagattarini Gold Medal by the University of Calcutta in 1923.

3. He served as the President of the Howrah District Congress Committee.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Consider the following statements regarding the medieval Bhakti saint Sant Malukdas:

1. He belonged to the Nirguna school of the Bhakti movement and composed prominent spiritual works such as Gyan Bodh and Ratna Khan.

2. He advocated for elaborate temple rituals, idol worship, and mandatory pilgrimages as the primary prerequisites for spiritual liberation.

3. His famous couplet—"Ajgar karai na chakri, pakshi karai na kaam"—reflects an absolute, unwavering trust in divine providence (Rama) as the provider for all living beings.

4. He aligned his philosophical teachings with the militant-ascetic traditions of the Nathpanthi Yogis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

4. Consider the following statements :

I. The Central Consumer Protection Authority imposed a ₹10 lakh penalty on Roppen Transportation Services Private Limited (Rapido) after finding prompts that created a false impression that paying more would improve the chance of getting a ride while the booking was still being processed.

II. The Authority also held that a colour-coded “Set your price” slider, which visually favoured an increase in fare over a decrease, amounted to a dark pattern in the ride-booking interface.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Pecuniary jurisdiction of District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions

2. Mandatory pre-litigation mediation under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements regarding the Government Approved Test Centres (GATCs) under the Legal Metrology (Government Approved Test Centre) Rules, 2013:

1. GATCs are authorised to undertake verification and re-verification of specified weighing and measuring instruments used in trade and commerce.

2. The verification of instruments through GATCs is mandatory, and legal metrology officers of State Governments are barred from performing this function.

3. Following recent amendments, the scope of GATCs has been expanded to cover 23 categories of instruments, including hydrogen dispensers.

4. The Regional Reference Standard Laboratories (RRSLs) functioning under the Department of Consumer Affairs are deemed to be GATCs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Which of the following statements with regard to the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is/are correct?

1. MDR is a tax collected by the Government of India.

2. MDR is collected by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

3. MDR is shared among banks and payment application providers under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

7. Which of the following statements regarding the Kishau Multipurpose Project Agreement are correct?

1. It is proposed to be constructed on the Tons River, which is a major tributary of the Yamuna River.

2. The project involves six basin states/UTs, with approximately 90% of the cost funded by the Central Government.

3. The project will be implemented by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC), a central public sector undertaking.

4. The agreement aims to help augment drinking water supplies and improve the environmental flow of the Yamuna River.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only

8. Which of the following statements regarding the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) and the implementation of the Dam Safety Act are correct?

1. The National Dam Safety Authority is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Dam Safety Act to maintain a national database of specified dams and resolve inter-state safety issues.

2. The primary accountability for the structural integrity, surveillance, and day-to-day operation and maintenance of a specified dam rests directly with the Central Government.

3. The Act mandates the constitution of an Independent Panel of Experts (IPoE) and the formulation of Comprehensive Dam Safety Evaluations (CDSE) for specified dams.

4. The statutory jurisdiction of the NDSA covers minor check-dams, farm ponds, and standard urban water conveyance canals constructed across local municipal boundaries.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

9. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of the Gati Shakti Cargo Terminals (GCT) policy under India's multimodal infrastructure initiative?

(a) To grant exclusive commercial monopoly to private logistics companies over railway freight handling

(b) To boost cargo handling capacity and attract private investment for developing multimodal cargo terminals across the railway network

(d) To mandate government-owned freight operations independent of private participation in the logistics sector

10. Which one of the following best describes the primary objective of the Varuna Elevated Corridor in Varanasi?

(a) To establish a dedicated freight corridor exclusively for industrial goods between Varanasi and Chandauli

(b) To decongest Varanasi's urban roads by providing a high-capacity alternative route along the Varuna River, improving access to key transport hubs and reducing travel time

(d) To connect Varanasi directly with the national capital region through a high-speed expressway along the Ganga River

11. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Pension Sakhis' initiative:

1. It is a joint initiative by the Department of Rural Development (DoRD) and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

2. The framework seeks to leverage the community-based women-led Self-Help Group (SHG) network under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

3. Pension Sakhis will function as statutory pension regulators at the village level and will work as Central Recordkeeping Agencies for NPS accounts.

4. The primary mandate of Pension Sakhis is to directly manage and administer the investment portfolios of the National Pension System (NPS) at the village level.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only

12. Consider the following statements regarding the recently inaugurated SPROUT facility:

1. SPROUT stands for "SpeedSeed Phenotyping and Resource Optimisation for Integrated Trait Analysis" and has been established at the BRIC-National Institute of Plant Genome Research (BRIC-NIPGR).

2. It is designed to measure traditional farming output without artificial environmental controls.

3. SPROUT will help connect advances in genomics and genome editing with precise trait evaluation and breeding.

4. The facility operates independently of the BioE3 policy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 only

13. With reference to the recent revision of the EPFO wage ceiling, consider the following statements:

1. The statutory ceiling for mandatory EPFO coverage has been raised to ₹25,000 a month.

2. Employees newly joining above the old ₹15,000 limit now fall inside mandatory coverage up to ₹25,000.

3. The revision automatically covers informal gig workers irrespective of establishment size.

4. Covered workers gain EPF savings, EPS pension and EDLI insurance under applicable scheme rules.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. Consider the following statements regarding India's observance of World Ozone Day 2026 and its climate commitments:

1. The theme for World Ozone Day 2026 was "Global Action for a Cooler Planet," marking a decade since the adoption of the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.

2. India launched the Net Zero Portal and the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) Dashboard.

3. The Net Zero Portal mandates all Indian industries to register and disclose their greenhouse gas emissions.

4. India has committed to a complete phase-out of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by 2032 under the Kigali Amendment.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

15. Consider the following statements:

I. Special Campaign 6.0 has a special emphasis on the effective collection, segregation and disposal of e-waste in accordance with the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022.

II. The campaign is implemented in two phases—a preparatory phase in September 2026 and an implementation phase from 2 to 31 October 2026—covering Central ministries/departments, attached/subordinate/autonomous offices, PSUs, field offices and Indian Missions abroad.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Institutionalisation of Swachhata in government offices

2. Reduction of pendency and scientific record/space management

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements with reference to methamphetamine tablets and their trafficking in India:

1. Methamphetamine tablets, commonly known as "Yaba," are trafficked into India primarily from Myanmar through the Zokhawthar-Champhai sector of Mizoram.

2. Methamphetamine is regulated as a psychotropic substance under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985.

3. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) reports that methamphetamine trafficking is growing at approximately 13 percent annually.

4. India is a signatory to the 1988 United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, which obligates states to criminalise money laundering linked to drug trafficking.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All four statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

17. Consider the following statements with reference to India's Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme:

1. There is no provision that requires an MSME applicant to demonstrate financial solvency for the three financial years preceding the date of application.

2. There is no tier in the AEO Programme that offers the benefit of deferred payment of import duty to certified businesses.

3. There is no inflexible rule that a newly established entity must complete three full financial years of business activity before it can be considered for AEO certification.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

18. Consider the following statements with reference to the PM Vishwakarma Scheme:

1. There is no provision in the scheme that restricts registration and benefits to only one member of a family.

2. There is no provision that requires skill verification before the toolkit incentive of up to ₹15,000 is released.

3. There is no provision that extends scheme benefits to artisans engaged in trades other than the notified list of 18 traditional trades.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

19. In a riverine tannery cluster where conventional lime–sulphide unhairing and pickle-based chrome tanning have long generated high TDS, sulphide odour and chromium-bearing effluent, a flashpoint has arisen after the State Pollution Control Board directed units to adopt cleaner process options developed by CSIR–CLRI. Small tanners fear loss of hide quality and working capital, while riparian communities and municipal authorities demand immediate reduction of chrome liquor discharge and solid chrome shavings dumped near habitations. Protests, work stoppages and competing social-media claims have followed. As the officer tasked with a mediated, sustainable outcome that protects livelihoods, public health and the river, consider the following statements:

1. A workable settlement should begin by recognising tanners’ fear of process failure and then demonstrate waterless chrome tanning and enzymatic unhairing on a pilot scale before mandating cluster-wide change.

2. The Board should insist that all units continue conventional chrome tanning without delay, because urban demand for leather goods outweighs local pollution concerns.

3. A multi-stakeholder platform—tanners, CLRI scientists, pollution-control officials and community representatives—should jointly examine enzymatic unhairing, waterless chrome tanning, and conversion of chrome shavings into protein syntans or regenerated leather.

4. An independent assessment of effluent load, chrome uptake and solid-waste recovery under the proposed cleaner package should be shared with both sides before any phased compliance timeline is fixed.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. Consider the following statements regarding sustainable leather processing technologies such as waterless chrome tanning, enzymatic unhairing, waste-to-regenerated leather, and protein syntans from chrome shavings:

1. Waterless chrome tanning and advanced enzymatic unhairing methods significantly reduce water consumption, chemical oxygen demand (COD), and the generation of toxic saline wastewater compared to conventional beamhouse processes.

2. The conversion of chrome shavings into protein syntans and the production of waste-to-regenerated leather embody the principles of a circular economy by valorizing solid protein wastes into high-value auxiliary chemicals and composite materials.

3. Enzymatic unhairing eliminates the need for any chemical agents, rendering industrial effluent potable without requiring secondary biological or tertiary wastewater treatment.

4. Protein syntans derived from chrome shavings are utilized as food flavor enhancers and animal feed supplements due to their high nutritional purity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Consider the following statements regarding ship recycling in India under international and domestic frameworks:

1. India captured the highest global ship-recycling share in 2025, processing nearly 3 million gross tonnage under the Recycling of Ships Act.

2. The Hong Kong Convention regulates ship breaking in territorial waters excluding addressing hazardous waste management on land.

3. The Recycling of Ships Act, 2019 mandates ready-for-recycling certificates specifically for ships exceeding five hundred gross tonnage.

4. State maritime boards issue international recycling certificates.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

22. Consider the following statements with reference to NITI Aayog’s Trade Watch Quarterly:

1. The ninth edition covers Q1 of FY 2026–27 and takes India’s metals and ores trade as its thematic focus.

2. It is a statutory quarterly bulletin issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade under the FTDR Act.

3. The edition notes that iron and steel, steel articles and aluminium together dominate India’s metals exports.

4. The publication is released only after approval of the Union Cabinet as a successive Budget document.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

23. Consider the following statements with reference to the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI):

1. NITI Aayog publishes IEMI to benchmark States and Union Territories on electric-mobility progress.

2. The Index scores jurisdictions across themes that include charging-infrastructure readiness.

3. The first edition was released in 2024 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

4. All 36 States and Union Territories had notified dedicated EV policies when the second edition was launched.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

24. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 10 of the 1991 India–Pakistan agreement requires opposing naval ships not to close within three nautical miles in international waters.

2. The three-nautical-mile rule applies only inside each country’s twelve-nautical-mile territorial sea.

3. The same article also covers submarines of the two countries operating in international waters.

4. India invoked this provision after a North Arabian Sea collision involving PNS Hunain.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

25. Consider the following pairs:

Special provision in Part XXI Matter to which it principally relates

1. Article 371 Separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada and rest of Maharashtra, and for Saurashtra, Kutch and rest of Gujarat

2. Article 371A and Article 371G Parliamentary laws on Naga/Mizo religious and social practices, customary law and ownership of land not to apply unless the State Assembly so resolves

3. Article 371B and Article 371C Committee of the Legislative Assembly drawn from specified tribal/hill areas of Assam and Manipur

4. Article 371H Special responsibility of the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh with respect to law and order

5. Article 371J Development board and equitable opportunities in public employment and education for the Kalyana Karnataka region

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

26. 'A' was addressing a seminar on the architecture and utility of Hugging Face in modern artificial intelligence systems. 'A' explained that Hugging Face operates primarily as a centralized cloud-repository where developers share proprietary machine learning models, completely prohibiting any open-source collaboration or user contributions. 'B' pointed out that Hugging Face functions as a collaborative platform and community hub hosting open-source machine learning models, datasets, and web applications, to which 'A' was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) 'A' is correct in the interpretation of Hugging Face, including the view on non-inclusion of open-source contributions.

(b) The view of 'B' that Hugging Face is a collaborative platform for open-source machine learning models and datasets is correct.

(d) The view of only 'A' is correct.

27. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the recent wildfire crisis in Sumatra and its effect on Elephas maximus sumatranus. X explained that the subspecies is listed as Critically Endangered and that a Geopix assessment had found several hundred thousand hectares of remaining elephant habitat affected by fires in August–early September 2026, worsening fragmentation of movement corridors. Y pointed out that only about 1,320–1,635 wild Sumatran elephants are estimated to survive, that the population has fallen by around 45 per cent in two decades, and that fire hotspots overlapping plantations increase human–elephant conflict. X was not convinced that the conflict-and-decline figures belonged in the same account as the fire mapping.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) X is correct in the interpretation of the fire-and-habitat problem, including the view that Y’s population and conflict points need not be accepted.

(b) The view of Y that the wild population is only in the low thousands and has declined sharply, with conflict risk rising where fires meet plantations, is not correct.

(d) The view of only Y is correct.

28. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the implications of a further rise in the U.S. policy rate toward 4.1 per cent for Indian firms that have borrowed in dollars. X explained that a second U.S. tightening can strengthen the dollar, pressure the rupee and raise the rupee cost of servicing unhedged external commercial borrowings, and that listed borrowers should therefore publish a sensitivity note showing how interest and exchange-rate moves would affect debt service and earnings. Y added that even firms classified as “hedged” can remain exposed if hedges are partial, threshold-based or routed through the dollar rather than directly against the rupee, to which X was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) X is correct in stressing a published sensitivity note, including the view that Y’s caution on incomplete hedges is unnecessary.

(b) The view of Y that incomplete or cross-currency hedges can leave borrowers exposed is not correct.

(d) The view of only Y is correct.

29. Consider the following statements about the Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) in India:

1. VRRR is a fine-tuning tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system when durable surplus sits above the policy corridor.

2. Under the revised Liquidity Management Framework of 2025, the 14-day VRRR operation was discontinued as the main operation for managing short-term liquidity.

3. VRRR auctions are conducted at a fixed rate equal to the repo rate, and banks are obligated to park their entire surplus liquidity with the RBI.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

30. Which of the following statements about record copper prices and their impact on user industries have not been borne out by available evidence?

1. London Metal Exchange copper futures have traded at lifetime highs above $14,000 a tonne.

2. Electric vehicles contain less copper than internal-combustion vehicles, insulating EV makers from the rally.

3. Cable makers and engineering-goods producers have reported cost pass-through and compressed margins.

4. Some firms are substituting aluminium, but copper cannot be eliminated where conductivity matters.

5. The rally has no bearing on power-grid equipment or data-centre electrical gear.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 5 only

31. Consider the following statements:

I. Stem cell therapy may be offered as standard care in routine clinical practice only for disease conditions/indications included in the list approved by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

II. Therapeutic use of any type of stem cell for Autism Spectrum Disorder is restricted to duly approved clinical trials under the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017, and cannot be offered as a routine, standard or commercial clinical service.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Regulation of unproven stem cell interventions

2. Compliance with the Supreme Court judgment in Yash Charitable Trust & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. With reference to the classification of drugs under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, consider the following details:

SI. No. | Schedule | Coverage / nature | Regulatory requirement

1. | Schedule H | Sold only on the prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner | Mandatory separate sales register to be maintained for three years

2. | Schedule H1 | Selected third- and fourth-generation antibiotics, anti-TB drugs and certain habit-forming medicines | Separate register of each sale (prescriber, patient, drug and quantity) to be maintained for three years

3. | Schedule X | Narcotic and psychotropic substances | Tightest storage (under lock and key) together with prescription in duplicate, one copy retained for two years

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

33. Consider the following statements with reference to India's recent initiatives in agricultural carbon markets:

I. India's first direct benefit transfer (DBT) payments for soil carbon credits were disbursed to smallholder farmers for adopting regenerative farming practices such as Direct Seeded Rice (DSR), reduced tillage, and crop-residue management.

II. The carbon credits associated with these initial payouts were generated and verified under internationally recognized protocols such as Verra's VM0042 methodology through collaborative scientific frameworks involving the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

The above statements are associated with which of the following carbon programs?

1. 'Aadi' farmer carbon programme

2. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Consider the following statements with reference to Hyderabad’s accession and the integration of princely states:

1. The Standstill Agreement signed between Hyderabad and the Dominion of India in November 1947 authorised the Government of India to station troops in the State for the maintenance of internal order.

2. Operation Polo, launched in September 1948 and officially termed a ‘police action’, ended with the Nizam of Hyderabad signing the Instrument of Accession to India.

3. Unlike Hyderabad, the integration of Junagadh was completed through a plebiscite held in 1948 after its Nawab fled to Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

35. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s official position on the Pakistan–China Boundary Joint Commission (September 2026):

1. India has stated that there is no boundary between Pakistan and China and that the so-called Joint Commission is without any legal basis.

2. India has accepted the 2013 Pakistan–China Agreement on the Boundary Management System as valid for administrative coordination, while continuing to reject only the 1963 boundary agreement.

3. India has never recognised the so-called China-Pakistan Boundary Agreement of 1963 and has consistently maintained that it is illegal and invalid.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

36. Consider the following statements regarding the European Commission's recent proposal for Canada's "associate membership" in the European Union:

1. The proposal was made by European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen during her annual State of the Union address to the European Parliament.

2. The "associate member" status is explicitly defined in the Treaty on European Union (TEU) and the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union (TFEU).

3. Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney welcomed the proposal but clarified that Canada is not seeking full EU membership.

4. The proposal would require unanimous agreement among all 27 EU member states and ratification by their domestic parliaments to become legally binding.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

37. In a diverse metropolitan city with a history of communal flashpoints and a vibrant digital public sphere, a well-known author and social commentator published a satirical book and accompanying social-media posts that critically examined certain religious practices and historical narratives of a major community. Large sections of that community alleged that the work was a deliberate and malicious insult intended to outrage their religious feelings, and FIRs were registered under Section 299 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. Supporters of the author invoked Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, arguing that robust criticism of ideas, even if offensive to some, is essential to a liberal democracy. Protests, counter-protests, platform takedown demands, and calls for a complete ban quickly followed. As a senior Government official tasked with de-escalating the situation while upholding both public order and constitutional values, you must navigate the tension between religious offence and free speech. Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. Any resolution process should begin by distinguishing between speech that is merely offensive or critical of religious ideas and speech that satisfies the statutory requirement of “deliberate and malicious intention” under Section 299 BNS.

2. The Government should immediately ban the book and prosecute the author to restore communal harmony, because hurting religious sentiments of a large group must prevail over individual expression.

3. Convening a structured multi-stakeholder dialogue that includes representatives of the aggrieved community, free-speech advocates, legal experts and platform intermediaries to clarify the limits of both Section 299 and Article 19.

4. Commissioning an independent legal and contextual review of the contested material and placing the findings in the public domain so that subsequent administrative or prosecutorial decisions rest on evidence rather than street pressure.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to a constitutionally sustainable resolution of the conflict?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

38. Which of the following statements about the OneTag FASTag portability system is/are correct?

1. Under OneTag, a user can switch the FASTag issuer bank while retaining the same physical sticker, Tag ID and vehicle registration number.

2. The facility is available through the NHAI Rajmargyatra app and has been jointly developed by the Indian Highways Management Company Limited (IHMCL) and the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

3. Upon successful portability, the existing FASTag wallet balance is automatically transferred in full to the new issuer bank.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

39. Which of the following statements about the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 is/are correct?

1. It authorizes the U.S. President to impose tariffs of up to 100 percent on imports from countries that rank among the five largest purchasers of Russian-origin crude oil or natural gas (and certain facilitators of Russia’s shadow fleet).

2. The Act requires the President to impose sanctions on every Russian financial institution with no provision for waiver or certification to Congress.

3. It extends the Iran Sanctions Act of 1996 by ten years.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

40. Which of the following statements about the Houthi movement's territorial expansion in Yemen is/are correct?

1. The Houthis seized control of Yemen's capital, Sanaa, in September 2014, forcing the internationally recognized government into exile.

2. In September 2026, the Houthis captured the strategic Red Sea port city of Mocha and Mayun (Perim) Island, completing their takeover of the Bab al-Mandab Strait area.

3. Prior to the 2026 offensive, the Houthis already controlled the entire western coast of Yemen.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following statements about the Black Sea is/are correct?

1. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Bosporus Strait, the Sea of Marmara and the Dardanelles.

2. The Volga River is one of the major rivers that drain into the Black Sea.

3. Among the bordering countries, Romania has the longest coastline on the Black Sea.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

42. Which of the following statements about Israeli settlements in the occupied territories is/are correct?

1. The United Nations Security Council Resolution 2334 (2016) states that Israeli settlements in Palestinian territory occupied since 1967 have no legal validity and constitute a flagrant violation of international law.

2. The International Court of Justice in its advisory opinion of July 2024 reaffirmed that Israeli settlements in the West Bank and East Jerusalem are established and maintained in violation of international law.

3. Israel has accepted the de jure applicability of Article 49 of the Fourth Geneva Convention to the West Bank and East Jerusalem

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

43. Which of the following statements about United States–Iran relations and the United Nations system is/are correct?

1. The United States and Iran have had no formal diplomatic relations since 1980, following the 1979 seizure of the U.S. Embassy in Tehran.

2. Both the United States and Iran are States Parties to the Rome Statute; therefore the International Criminal Court has automatic jurisdiction over alleged war crimes involving either country.

3. The 2015 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action on Iran’s nuclear programme was adopted as a binding resolution of the UN General Assembly.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

44. Which of the following statements about the proposed Digitisation and Exchange of Land Token Assets (DELTA) Act is/are correct?

1. The proposed Act would allow Maharashtra to record ownership of land and other real-world assets as blockchain tokens and aims to make the State India’s first “tokenised State.”

2. The land tokens have begun trading on recognised stock exchanges.

3. An expert committee comprising representatives from SEBI, BSE, NSE, and legal and technology specialists has been constituted to review the proposed framework.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

45. Consider the following statements about the Kosovo Specialist Chambers (KSC) in The Hague:

1. The Kosovo Specialist Chambers is an independent, EU-backed judicial institution based in the Netherlands that recently convicted former Kosovo President Hashim Thaçi of war crimes committed during the 1998–99 conflict.

2. The tribunal operates as an organic division of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) with permanent mandatory jurisdiction over all war crimes globally.

3. The jurisdiction of the court is exclusively restricted to adjudicating financial fraud and corporate corruption cases within the Balkans.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 only

46. Mr. A is a mid-level official in the General Administration Department of Maharashtra. After the Maharashtra State Reservation for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) Act, 2024 came into force, he is tasked with issuing recruitment and admission guidelines. During file processing he notes that the Act specifies the Maratha community as SEBC, provides 10% reservation in educational institutions (including private unaided institutions other than minority institutions) and in direct recruitment to public services, applies the creamy layer principle, and is stated to operate over and above existing reservations. Legal cell officers inform him that the 2018 SEBC Act was struck down by the Supreme Court in Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil (2021) mainly for exceeding the 50% ceiling without extraordinary circumstances, and that petitions against the 2024 Act are pending before the Bombay High Court. His superior, Ms. B, asks him to issue instructions immediately so that current recruitment cycles are not delayed.

What amongst the following should Mr. A do now?

1. Issue the guidelines at once, treating the 10% SEBC quota as fully operational because the Legislature has enacted a new law after a fresh Commission report

2. Withhold implementation until the High Court finally decides the petitions, on the ground that any quota above 50% is automatically void after Indra Sawhney and Jaishri Patil

3. Implement the Act as enacted, while clearly recording that creamy-layer exclusion, statutory exemptions (minority institutions, single-cadre posts, short-term appointments, etc.) and the pending judicial challenge must be reflected in the guidelines and that any court stay will be followed forthwith

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on successive generations of missile vessels of the Indian Navy. ‘X’ explained that the Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMVs) now under construction at Cochin Shipyard Limited are high-speed (about 33 knots) indigenous platforms contracted in March 2023 for six ships, with keel of the first vessel laid on 18 September 2026; they will carry surface-to-surface missiles and perform maritime strike and sea-denial roles. ‘Y’ pointed out that these NGMVs succeed, by role, the ageing Veer-class missile vessels (Indian variants of the Soviet Tarantul design) and will additionally incorporate water-jet propulsion and an indigenous anti-missile defence suite, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) ‘X’ is correct in the description of NGMVs, including the view that predecessor-class details are irrelevant.

(b) The view of ‘Y’ that NGMVs succeed the Veer-class by role is not correct.

(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

48. Consider the following statements regarding the National Land Monetisation Corporation (NLMC):

1. The NLMC is a wholly owned government company under the Ministry of Finance.

2. It facilitates the monetisation of surplus land and buildings held by central public enterprises.

3. The corporation uses the monetisation to fund the new and existing Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) and other government entities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

49. Which of the following statements with regard to the appointment of Judges of High Courts in India is/are correct?

1. Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State and, in the case of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court, as provided under Article 217.

2. Additional Judges of a High Court can be appointed by the President for a period not exceeding five years under Article 224 to deal with temporary increase in the business of the Court.

3. No person appointed as an additional or acting Judge of a High Court shall hold office after attaining the age of sixty-two years.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

50. Which of the following statements with regard to recent United States laws concerning Russia is/are correct?

1. The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026, signed into law by the President of the United States in 2026, authorizes tariffs of up to 100 per cent on the top five importers of Russian crude oil or natural gas and extends the Iran Sanctions Act of 1996 by five years.

2. The Prohibiting Russian Uranium Imports Act of 2024 imposes an immediate and comprehensive ban on all Russian energy exports (oil, natural gas and uranium) to the United States and contains no waiver mechanism.

3. The Prohibiting Russian Uranium Imports Act of 2024 unlocks previously appropriated funds to expand domestic uranium enrichment and conversion capacity in the United States.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

51. Consider the following statements regarding India’s lunar ambitions and space exploration roadmap:

1. Chandrayaan-4 is planned as a complex lunar sample-return mission designed to collect material from the Moon's south polar region and safely bring it back to Earth.

2. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has set a strategic national goal to land an Indian astronaut on the Moon by the year 2040.

3. The proposed Chandrayaan-5 mission is being developed as an exclusive, unilaterally funded domestic mission without any international collaboration.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

52. Consider the following statements about Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968:

1. The Paragraph deals with disputes between rival groups or sections of a recognised political party claiming to be that party.

2. The Election Commission of India decides such disputes by examining the party's constitution, the aims and objects of the party, and the support enjoyed by each rival group among the party's office-bearers and members.

3. The decision of the Election Commission in such disputes is binding on all rival groups, and the group recognised by the Commission is entitled to use the party's name and symbol.

4. The Paragraph applies both to recognised and unrecognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. Which of the following statements with regard to the Kuki-Zo and Meitei communities of Manipur is/are correct?

1. The Meiteis, who form the majority in the Imphal Valley, are not included in the list of Scheduled Tribes of Manipur, whereas the Kuki-Zo groups inhabiting the surrounding hills enjoy Scheduled Tribe status.

2. The ethnic violence that erupted in May 2023 was triggered by a Supreme Court order recommending Scheduled Tribe status for the Meitei community.

3. Historically, the Kuki-Zo communities were the rulers of the Manipur kingdom, while the Meiteis migrated from the Chin Hills of Myanmar in the 19th century.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

54. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of the US–Denmark–Greenland security agreement announced in September 2026?

(a) To transfer full sovereign ownership of Greenland from Denmark to the United States

(b) To permanently bar all foreign military presence in Greenland, including that of the United States

(c) To grant the United States permanent control over Greenland's security and expand its military presence, while formally recognizing Danish sovereignty and Greenland's right to self-determination

(d) To establish a joint NATO command centre in Greenland replacing all existing US military installations

55. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) scheme?

(a) To provide direct financial subsidies exclusively for large-scale corporate ventures owned by Scheduled Castes

(b) To merge all existing rural employment guarantee programs into a single centralized national database

(c) To reduce poverty and socio-economic developmental gaps in Scheduled Caste dominated villages through infrastructure grants and skill development

(d) To mandate automated digital transactions for all educational institutions operating in tribal and backward districts

56. Consider the following statements regarding the bans on Conocarpus plantation across Indian States:

I. The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) recommended a nationwide ban on planting Conocarpus, citing its invasive nature, impact on groundwater, and public health risks.

II. Following the national advisory, States such as Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana have enforced prohibitory orders, while other States have incorporated the ban into municipal bylaws.

III. Scientific studies have conclusively established that Conocarpus releases toxic volatiles harmful to humans and causes excessive groundwater depletion compared to native species.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that the ban is based on a precautionary approach to an introduced species whose long-term ecological impacts are still being scientifically assessed.

2. Statement II suggests that while the Union Government issued an advisory, the enforcement of the ban depends on State-level action and municipal regulations.

3. Statement III suggests that the scientific consensus on the harms of Conocarpus is complete and undisputed.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Consider the following statements regarding the extension of the $100,000 H-1B visa fee by the United States:

I. The proclamation extending the fee requirement targets H-1B workers who are outside the United States and seeking admission under a new petition, while excluding renewals and certain change-of-status cases.

II. The extension, issued despite a federal court ruling that vacated the fee as unlawful, relies on the President's authority under immigration law to restrict the entry of foreign nationals.

III. The policy has led to a sharp reduction in H-1B registrations from large IT outsourcing firms, with the administration citing a decline of over 90 per cent.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that the fee is designed to impose a financial barrier primarily on employers seeking to bring new foreign workers into the United States from abroad, rather than on those already in the country.

2. Statement II suggests that the administration is attempting to use executive authority to achieve immigration policy goals even when the specific measure has been invalidated by the judiciary.

3. Statement III suggests that the fee has effectively altered hiring patterns and reduced reliance on the H-1B programme by certain categories of employers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

58. Consider the following statements about North Korea's response to international non-proliferation bodies and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):

I. Pyongyang formally rejected an IAEA resolution that renewed demands for the complete, verifiable, and irreversible dismantlement of its nuclear weapons program.

II. The North Korean foreign ministry asserted that its status as a nuclear-armed state is permanent, unnegotiable, and entirely outside the legal jurisdiction of the nuclear safeguards agreement.

III. The IAEA General Conference resolution imposed mandatory economic blockades and direct military inspections on North Korean military facilities without prior approval from the United Nations Security Council.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There are official statements released through state media explicitly dismissing IAEA resolutions as illegal political instruments dictated by external powers.

2. The state's constitution and policy declarations have codified its nuclear weapons status, rejecting any international framework aimed at compelling denuclearization.

3. The IAEA possesses independent executive authority under international law to unilaterally enforce military blockades and sanctions without authorization from the UN Security Council.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

59. Consider the following statements about the designation of organisations as terrorist outfits under Section 35(1) of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:

I. The Central Government is empowered to add an organisation to the First Schedule of the Act by notification if it believes that the organisation is involved in terrorism.

II. The designation power is not confined to groups operating only inside India; cross-border and foreign-based outfits have also been listed.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. Section 35 permits the Union Ministry of Home Affairs to add an outfit to the statutory schedule by notification; a prior judicial trial or conviction of the organisation is not a legal precondition.

2. Official notifications under the UAPA have included cross-border and foreign-based militant formations operating against India’s security interests.

3. The Act restricts the definition of terrorism to economic offences and corporate fraud, barring violent or ideological acts against the State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 2 only

60. Consider the following statements about the regulatory framework governing a large unlisted holding company classified as an Upper-Layer Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC-UL):

I. An entity placed in the Upper Layer category is required to list on a recognised stock exchange within three years of such classification, and once classified, it remains subject to the stricter regulatory framework for at least five years even if it no longer meets the eligibility criteria in subsequent assessments.

II. The Reserve Bank of India has clarified that a debt-free status alone is sufficient grounds for an entity to surrender its Certificate of Registration and exit the NBFC regulatory framework.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. The RBI's scale-based regulatory framework, revised in June 2026, sets an asset threshold of ₹1 lakh crore for classifying an entity as an Upper-Layer NBFC, and the entity in question had standalone assets well above this threshold.

2. The RBI's FAQs define "public funds" to include funds accessed indirectly through group and associate companies, meaning that even if the holding company itself carries no debt, its group companies' access to bank financing and market funding still counts against it.

3. The RBI has permitted entities classified in the Upper Layer to voluntarily surrender their registration immediately upon becoming debt-free, without any minimum retention period.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

61. With reference to the recent scientific studies on glacier dynamics in the Zanskar region of Ladakh, consider the following statements:

1. Sustained regional warming causes glaciers to lose mass and thin out, which subsequently reduces their internal driving force and surface flow velocity.

2. A slowdown in glacier velocity enhances the movement of ice from accumulation zones to the ablation zones, instantly augmenting downstream river flows permanently.

3. The phenomenon of "peak water" implies that while glacier melt may temporarily increase summer runoff in the Indus basin, meltwater contributions will eventually decline once glaciers lose a substantial fraction of their stored ice.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

62. With reference to the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP), consider the following statements:

1. It is a digital platform designed to integrate infrastructure planning across multiple ministries and state governments using a centralized Geographic Information System (GIS) framework.

2. The initiative is primarily driven by seven core engines of growth, namely: roads, railways, airports, mass transport, ports, waterways, and logistics infrastructure.

3. It has replaced the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

63. With reference to the Network Program on Precision Agriculture (ICAR-NePPA) launched by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), consider the following statements:

1. It is a national-level network program coordinated by ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) in partnership with multiple ICAR research institutes across various subject matter divisions.

2. The program functions exclusively under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

3. It integrates advanced technologies such as remote sensing (ground, drone, and satellite platforms), artificial intelligence (AI), and the Internet of Things (IoT) to optimize farm inputs.

4. The statutory funding and implementation guidelines of the program are governed by the provisions of the Seeds Act, 1966.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

64. With reference to the Chandipura Vesiculovirus (CHPV), consider the following statements:

1. CHPV is an arbovirus belonging to the Rhabdoviridae family and is primarily known to cause Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES).

2. The virus is predominantly transmitted by vectors such as sandflies, mosquitoes, and ticks.

3. It primarily targets geriatric populations.

4. There are currently no specific, commercially available antiviral drugs or vaccines approved for treating CHPV, and management relies strictly on supportive care.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

65. With reference to the geological characteristics and resource potential of India's coastal regions, consider the following statements:

1. The presence of monazite sand along the Kerala and Tamil Nadu coastlines serves as a vital domestic source of rare earth elements, particularly thorium and cerium.

2. The continental shelf on the eastern coast of India is significantly wider and shallower than the western coast, making it the primary focal point for all of India's offshore deep-water crude oil exploration.

3. Polymetallic nodules discovered in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) are exclusively composed of iron, nickel, copper, and cobalt.

4. The Deep Ocean Mission aims to develop indigenous technologies, such as manned submersibles, for the exploration of deep-sea minerals at depths exceeding 5,000 meters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

66. With reference to the constitutional provisions governing parliamentary privileges and fundamental rights in India, consider the following statements:

1. Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution outline the powers, privileges, and immunities of members of Parliament and State Legislatures, respectively, which are explicitly made subject to the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.

2. The question of whether the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression (Article 19(1)(a)) overrides legislative privileges has been referred to larger benches due to apparently conflicting historical observations in rulings such as Pandit M.S.M. Sharma v. Shri Krishna Sinha and subsequent references.

3. While the Constitution permits Parliament and State Legislatures to define their respective privileges through law, any such ordinary legislation must remain consistent with the fundamental rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

67. With reference to India's human spaceflight programme, Gaganyaan, consider the following statements:

1. The primary objective of the Gaganyaan mission is to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by launching a crew into a low Earth orbit (LEO) and safely bringing them back to Earth.

2. The mission architecture utilizes an indigenous heavy-lift launch vehicle, designated as LVM3, which has been specifically human-rated for crew safety.

3. The Vyommitra is an uncrewed experimental humanoid robot developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to simulate human functions and monitor environmental parameters ahead of the crewed flight.

4. As per the current mission design, the spacecraft recovery operations upon splashdown will be executed exclusively in international waters within the Pacific Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

68. With reference to the applications of space technology across various sectors in India, consider the following statements:

1. Satellite-based remote sensing data, including outputs from platforms like GeoCREST and VEDAS-based geospatial systems, are operationalized to support national agricultural programmes such as the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) through crop monitoring and soil-moisture assessments.

2. High-resolution space data and geoportal tools like Yuktdhara and Bhuvan Panchayat are exclusively utilized for coastal villages development and planning.

3. Near-real-time satellite monitoring through platforms like BHUVAN and NDEM provides essential data feeds for tracking natural calamities such as floods, forest fires, and Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).

4. Satellite communication frameworks replace terrestrial optical fiber networks across major metropolitan areas by handling all local cellular voice traffic without the need for ground infrastructure integration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

69. With reference to India's civil nuclear energy programme and recent updates presented in Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. India currently has ten nuclear reactors under construction with a total combined capacity of 8,000 MW, which includes indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) and foreign-assisted Light Water Reactors (LWRs).

2. The implementation timelines of ongoing nuclear power projects have faced setbacks primarily due to post-Fukushima safety design modifications, supply chain bottlenecks, and geopolitical disruptions affecting foreign-assisted projects like the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KKNPP).

3. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) functions as an autonomous statutory body established directly under the provisions of the historic SHANTI Act enacted in 2025 to regulate private nuclear power generation.

4. All nuclear power generation and reactor construction in India remain an exclusive set-up of the Central Government through public sector undertakings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

70. With reference to India's meteorological initiatives and the recently launched 'Mission Mausam', consider the following statements:

1. Mission Mausam is envisioned as a multi-year national initiative designed to transition India from a weather-forecast-driven system to a weather-risk-management framework.

2. The implementation and execution of the mission are spearheaded exclusively by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in coordination with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC).

3. The mission aims to deploy advanced technological infrastructure, including next-generation Doppler weather radars, high-performance computing systems, and advanced atmospheric research testbeds.

4. The initiative is strategically aimed at enhancing observational accuracy for extreme weather events such as tropical cyclones, cloudbursts, and heatwaves, directly aiding agencies like the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

71. Consider the following statements regarding institutional early warning systems in India:

1. The Multi-Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System (MHEW-DSS) is a Web-GIS platform by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) for real-time impact forecasting.

2. The SACHET portal uses the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) for national emergency alerts managed by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).

3. The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) tsunami system utilizes deep-ocean bottom pressure recorders.

4. The Central Water Commission (CWC) operates flood networks completely independently of ground stations.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

72. Consider the following statements regarding India's climate commitments and Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):

1. India achieved its Paris Agreement NDC target of reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP ahead of schedule.

2. The updated NDC submitted to the UNFCCC committed India to achieving net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by the target year 2050.

3. The National Green Hydrogen Mission and Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) scheme serve as key policy instruments supporting India's climate targets.

4. India successfully met its non-fossil fuel electricity generation capacity target well ahead of the 2030 deadline.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

73. With reference to the Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism and the Mediation Act, 2023 in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Mediation Act, 2023 provides a statutory framework for voluntary pre-litigation mediation and establishes the Mediation Council of India as a regulatory body.

2. A Mediated Settlement Agreement (MSA) resulting from community mediation under the Act carries the same conclusive, binding, and enforceable legal status as a court judgment.

3. The Act explicitly excludes certain disputes from mediation, such as claims involving criminal prosecution, minors, persons with intellectual disabilities, or matters relating to the levy of direct and indirect taxes.

4. The administration and conduct of international commercial arbitrations under institutional frameworks can be facilitated through bodies like the India International Arbitration Centre (IIAC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

74. With reference to the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy of the Government of India, consider the following statements:

1. The policy focuses on fostering high-performance biomanufacturing to shift from petrochemical-based paradigms to circular bio-economy models.

2. It mandates the complete phase-out of all traditional fossil-fuel refining infrastructure within the stipulated period of its implementation.

3. The policy aims to promote bio-based products such as bioplastics, bio-polymers, and bio-enzymes to significantly reduce carbon footprints and plastic pollution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

75. With reference to social welfare schemes and eldercare interventions in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY) aims to improve the quality of life of senior citizens by providing financial security, health care, and institutional services through various sub-schemes.

2. The Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme that provides physical aids and assisted-living devices directly to senior citizens irrespective of their economic class.

3. The expansion of the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) provides universal health coverage insurance specifically for all senior citizens aged 70 and above, regardless of their income status.

4. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a centrally sponsored scheme that provides financial assistance exclusively to elderly citizens.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

76. With reference to the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA) and drug demand reduction initiatives in India, consider the following statements:

1. The campaign operates as a vital outreach component under the overarching umbrella of the National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR).

2. The campaign integrates institutional support mechanisms, including the establishment and operation of District De-Addiction Centres (DDACs) and Integrated Rehabilitation Centres for Addicts (IRCAs).

3. The initiative works in close coordination with academic institutions, youth groups, and religious organizations to conduct mass awareness programs across target districts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

77. With reference to the inclusion of the Limboo and Tamang communities in the Scheduled Tribes list in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Limboo and Tamang communities were officially specified as Scheduled Tribes in the State of Sikkim under the Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order.

2. The process of inclusion or exclusion of any community from the list of Scheduled Tribes requires a constitutional amendment passed under Article 368 by a special majority of Parliament.

3. The specification of a community as a Scheduled Tribe in a particular state is done by the President through a public notification after consulting the Governor of that State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

78. With reference to the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and their socio-economic development in India, consider the following statements:

1. The criteria adopted for determining PVTGs include pre-agricultural level of technology, a stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence-level economy.

2. The Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission is structured to saturate Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group habitations with basic facilities like safe housing, clean drinking water, and road connectivity.

3. The Bonda and Kondadora communities, residing primarily in the state of Odisha, are officially classified and notified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

79. With reference to tribal livelihood enhancement initiatives and institutional support systems in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) integrates strategies for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) procurement and enterprise development under the administrative purview of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

2. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) functions as the central nodal agency responsible for establishing and coordinating Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs).

3. The National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC) provides concessional financial loans and credit lines to support tribal beneficiaries and micro-enterprises.

4. The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN) focuses specifically on saturating critical infrastructural and welfare gaps for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

80. With reference to the relocation and rehabilitation of villages from Core or Critical Tiger Habitats (CTHs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 2006, the relocation of people from core areas of tiger reserves must be strictly voluntary and cannot be carried out through forcible eviction.

2. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA) mandates that no forest dwellers shall be resettled unless free, informed consent is obtained from the concerned Gram Sabha.

3. The statutory verification and monitoring of the village relocation process, ensuring that all individual and community forest rights are settled, are overseen by a state-level monitoring committee.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

81. With reference to recent global workplace trends and enterprise artificial intelligence reports (such as those by the Work AI Institute and Glean), consider the following statements regarding the concept of "Botsitting":

1. "Botsitting" refers to the hidden labour expended by digital workers to make AI usable, which includes feeding it missing context, debugging errors, and cleaning up confident-but-wrong answers.

2. The phenomenon is legally mandated and regulated by international labour frameworks like the International Labour Organization (ILO) to ensure fair compensation for AI supervision hours.

3. Excessive botsitting frequently leads to "botshitting"—a workplace behaviour where exhausted employees ship unverified, AI-generated work without proper review or understanding.

4. Studies show that organizations operating in "context-rich" environments experience significantly lower rates of worker burnout and reduced instances of botsitting compared to context-poor environments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

82. With reference to the application of nanotechnology in modern cosmetics and consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. 24K gold serums frequently combine nano-gold particles to act as carrier vehicles, enhancing the delivery and deeper cellular penetration of active anti-aging ingredients.

2. Nanoparticles of zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are widely incorporated into commercial sunscreens to provide broad-spectrum UV protection without leaving a heavy white cast.

3. Nanosilver formulations are intentionally added to underarm deodorants and oral care items to exploit their inherent antimicrobial and antibacterial properties.

4. Engineered nanomaterials used in commercial products do not occur naturally in the Earth's environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

83. With reference to the evolution of environmental jurisprudence and constitutional interpretation in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court expanded the ambit of Article 21 (Right to Life) to encompass the right to a clean and healthy environment through progressive judicial activism.

2. The Polluter Pays principle and the Precautionary principle were formally recognized by the Supreme Court as part of domestic environmental law, drawing upon customary international law principles.

3. The Public Trust doctrine places a legal duty on the State to act as a trustee of natural resources like air, water, and forests, ensuring they are protected for public use rather than converted into private ownership.

4. The doctrine of Absolute Liability permits an enterprise engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities to claim exemptions from compensation if it proves an "Act of God."

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

84. With reference to the recent developments in cross-border financial technology integration and digital public infrastructure, consider the following statements:

1. India and Spain have agreed to fast-track technical discussions to enable interoperability between India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Spain’s prominent mobile payment platform, Bizum.

2. Bizum is a widely adopted instant payment solution integrated directly into Spanish banking apps, allowing users to transfer funds instantaneously using mobile phone numbers.

3. The proposed interoperability framework aims to streamline seamless cross-border retail transactions and remittances for tourists and business travelers between the two countries.

4. The initiative is a part of India's broader strategy spearheaded by NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) to export its Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) globally through bilateral payment partnerships.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

85. With reference to the concept of the "Purple Economy" (often associated with the Care Economy), consider the following statements:

1. The Purple Economy encompasses both paid and unpaid caregiving activities, including child-rearing, eldercare, and support for persons with disabilities.

2. Unpaid care work performed predominantly by women is systematically fully integrated into standard Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculations by the National Statistical Office (NSO).

3. The International Labour Organization’s (ILO) framework for the care economy centers on the principles commonly referred to as the 5 Rs: Recognize, Reduce, Redistribute, Reward, and Represent.

4. Formalizing and investing heavily in the care economy are seen as vital strategies to improve India's Female Labour Force Participation (FLFP) rate and address demographic shifts like an aging population.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3, and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

86. With reference to wildlife conservation, species translocation programs, and protected area management in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Gujarat Forest Department translocated 50 spotted deer (Axis axis) from the Sasan Gir Wildlife Division to the Mandvi Forest Range to strengthen the natural prey base and mitigate human-wildlife conflict.

2. Cheetahs have been successfully reintroduced into Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh under an intercontinental translocation initiative sourced from southern Africa.

3. One-horned rhinoceroses were systematically reintroduced into Manas National Park in Assam through the Indian Rhino Vision 2021 (IRV 2021) program to expand their geographic range and secure viable breeding populations.

4. Asiatic lions native to Gir have been successfully established through state-led independent translocation into Madhya Pradesh's Kuno National Park to create a second free-ranging self-sustaining wild population.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

87. With reference to the technological concept of "Embodied AI" (Artificial Intelligence), consider the following statements:

1. Embodied AI refers to AI systems—such as humanoid robots, autonomous drones, and robotic manipulators—that are integrated into physical bodies to perceive, learn, and interact directly with the real-world environment.

2. Unlike traditional LLMs (Large Language Models) that process text or data in isolation, Embodied AI models utilize multimodal perception (vision, tactile sensing, and spatial awareness) to execute physical actions and reasoning.

3. The development of Embodied AI relies heavily on advanced simulation environments (such as physics-based digital twins) to train agents in virtual worlds before deploying them into unpredictable physical spaces.

4. Embodied AI systems are entirely self-governing and rely exclusively on edge computing chips inside their physical bodies, requiring zero connectivity to cloud infrastructure or human-in-the-loop oversight.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

88. Which of the following best describes the primary driving factors behind the intense "Race for Low Earth Orbit (LEO)" among global space agencies and private commercial entities?

(a) Establishing permanent military forward-operating bases and intercontinental ballistic missile interceptor grids in outer space.

(b) Conducting deep-space manned colonization missions to Mars and resource extraction missions on near-Earth asteroids.

(c) Deploying mega-constellations of small satellites for global high-speed broadband internet, earth observation, and maritime tracking.

(d) Developing commercial space tourism hubs exclusively focused on luxury hospitality and zero-gravity cinematic production.

89. With reference to the interpretation of fundamental rights and constitutional jurisprudence in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court has explicitly recognized the Right to Walk and safe pedestrian access on footpaths as an integral component of the freedom of movement under Article 19(1)(d) and the Right to Life under Article 21.

2. Judicial pronouncements on pedestrian rights place a positive obligation on the State and municipal authorities to design, construct, and maintain obstruction-free walkways as a core public utility.

3. Fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are absolute in nature, meaning the State cannot impose any regulatory restrictions or encumbrances, such as commercial hawking or utility installation, on public footpaths.

4. The recognition of pedestrian rights underscores the principle of inclusive urban mobility, prioritizing non-motorized transport and commuter safety over unregulated vehicular encroachment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

90. With reference to India's tax jurisprudence and the supremacy of the General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) over tax treaties, consider the following statements:

1. Statutory provisions explicitly empower GAAR to override Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs) when tax avoidance arrangements are detected.

2. A Tax Residency Certificate (TRC) issued by a foreign nation serves as absolute, indisputable proof guaranteeing automatic tax treaty benefits.

3. Tax authorities can look through intermediary shell companies and deny treaty relief if transactions lack genuine commercial substance.

4. The Supreme Court established that domestic anti-abuse rules cannot be invoked to question corporate residency structures established under bilateral treaties.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

91. Consider the following statements with reference to Glaw Lake:

1. It is located within the Kamlang Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh.

2. It was designated as India’s 101st Ramsar Site and the first such site in Arunachal Pradesh.

3. It is a high-altitude brackish-water lagoon primarily known for supporting Irrawaddy dolphins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following statements relating to India's Climate Finance Taxonomy:

1) Its sectoral focus fully aligns with frameworks from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and SEBI.

2) Its framework is primarily based on mitigation potential and principles.

3) It is a classification system which was first announced in the Union Budget 2024-25.

4) It is designed to ensure long-term access to reliable and affordable energy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

93. In reference to India's First Hydrogen-Powered Train, consider the following statements:

1) Its lifecycle costs are estimated to be 20–25% lower than battery-electric trains.

2) Its refuelling facility uses internationally accepted safety standards like NFPA-2 and ISO 19880 Series.

3) Hydrogen gas is stored in high-pressure cylinders on the train.

4) It releases water vapor which doesn't drift away into the air, rather it is captured to make more hydrogen while moving.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

94. The Bar-headed Goose is famous for flying over the Himalayas at altitudes of 6,000-8,000m. Which of the following are key destinations for the Bar-headed Goose in India?

1. Point Calimere

2. Chilika Lake

3. Karave wetlands

4. National Chambal Sanctuary

5. Nal Sarovar

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 5

95. X was delivering a guest lecture on the evolution of Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India. X explained that the Supreme Court, through its judgments, has expanded the scope of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. X argued that this right primarily encompasses the physical well-being of an individual. Y, however, pointed out that this interpretation is incomplete and that Article 21 also includes the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change, citing a recent judgment of the Supreme Court.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) X is correct, as the right to life under Article 21 has been historically limited to protecting physical life and liberty.

(b) The view of Y that Article 21 includes the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change is not correct, as this is not a fundamental right.

(d) The view of only Y is correct.

96. Which of the following organizations/institutions have been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize more than once?

1. International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC)

2. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

3. Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)

4. World Food Programme (WFP)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

97. With reference to the ongoing WTO negotiations on agriculture, consider the following pairs:

Coalition/Group Stated Position/Concern

1. G33 Advocate for Special and Differential Treatment and a permanent solution on public stockholding for food security.

2. African Group Supports updating the External Reference Price (ERP) used for subsidy calculation from the 1986-88 base period.

3. Brazil Proposed informal negotiations on public stockholding, a move supported by India and the G33.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

98. Consider the following statements regarding the WTO's dispute settlement mechanism and India's position:

1. The WTO's Appellate Body has been non-functional since 2019 due to the blocking of appointments by the United States.

2. India has refused to join the Multi-Party Interim Arbitration (MPIA) agreement, preferring to demand the restoration of the original Appellate Body.

3. The EU has challenged India for "appealing into the void" in a dispute over tariffs on ICT goods, where India appealed to the non-functional Appellate Body.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a Green Bond from a Climate Bond?

(a) A Climate Bond is exclusively issued by sovereign governments, while a Green Bond is issued by corporations.

(b) A Climate Bond's proceeds are specifically directed towards climate change mitigation and adaptation projects, which is a subset of the broader category of Green Bonds.

(d) There is no difference; the terms are used interchangeably.

100. With reference to the Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology used to compute the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), consider the following statements:

1. The Adjusted Headcount Ratio (M0) is calculated by multiplying the Headcount Ratio (H) and the Intensity of poverty (A), and it satisfies the property of dimensional monotonicity.

2. After identifying the poor using a poverty cutoff (k), the deprivations of the non-poor are censored (set to zero) before computing the final MPI to ensure the measure satisfies the property of poverty focus.

3. According to the 2025 Global MPI methodological note, a person is identified as multidimensionally poor if they are deprived in at least one-third of the weighted indicators (poverty cutoff, k = 33.33%).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

General Studies Paper 1 | Mock Test 4 | UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

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