General Studies Paper 1 — Mock Test 1 UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

CSE

Sep 6

45 min read

UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 GS Paper 1 Mock Test 1 | Current Affairs and Static Syllabus Practice | For Question Papers & Solutions PDFs, visit: https://www.csetests.com/

Note: Treat every mock test as a real exam. These tests are designed to consolidate your knowledge. Questions map core topics and current developments with static concepts. A serious review of each paper will steadily raise your score.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Hindu Kush Himalaya region:

1. It forms a vast water tower acting as the headwaters for several major Asian river systems.

2. The entire mountain chain experiences identical precipitation regimes dominated exclusively by the southwest monsoon.

3. It acts as a major climatic barrier trapping cold Central Asian air masses north of the range.

4. Permafrost degradation and glacial lake outburst floods are minimal across high-altitude Himalayan zones.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

2. Consider the following statements regarding the institutional mechanisms and recent legal disputes concerning the Cauvery river water-sharing framework:

1. The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) and Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) were established under a scheme framed pursuant to a Supreme Court directive.

2. Biligundlu functions as the designated interstate measurement point where the Central Water Commission monitors flows from Karnataka to Tamil Nadu.

3. The Supreme Court possesses direct original jurisdiction under Article 131 to adjudicate inter-state river water disputes between riparian states.

4. Once passed, statutory tribunals constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act can’t review or modify awards.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

3. Consider the following statements regarding personal insolvency and corporate insolvency:

1. Personal insolvency governs individuals and partnerships facing unpayable debts, whereas corporate insolvency exclusively handles incorporated companies.

2. The resolution framework for corporate insolvency strictly prohibits debt restructuring plans, unlike personal insolvency which only permits liquidation.

3. Corporate insolvency proceedings are handled by the National Company Law Tribunal, whereas personal insolvency cases go to the Debt Recovery Tribunal.

4. Personal insolvency laws grant almost complete immunity from asset attachment, which corporate insolvency frameworks usually deny to businesses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

4. Consider the following statements regarding political dissent and state labeling:

1. State labeling of ideological dissent as internal security threats reflects a hardening posture against democratic opposition.

2. The use of terms like 'Naxal' for non-violent critics aligns with established constitutional definitions of armed rebellion.

3. Criminalizing ideological opposition often blurs the line between legitimate political disagreement and unlawful violent acts.

4. Constitutional jurisprudence in India prohibits preventive detention laws for individuals expressing anti-state political ideologies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

5. Consider the following statements regarding 'Lake America' (historically known as Lake Ontario):

1. It is the largest by surface area among the five interconnected Great Lakes of North America.

2. It forms a natural international boundary between the Canadian province of Ontario and the U.S. state of New York.

3. The primary outlet for its waters is the St. Lawrence River, which eventually drains into the Atlantic Ocean.

4. It receives direct inflows of water from Lake Superior through an extensive subterranean channel network.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

6. Consider the following statements regarding the legal and constitutional aspects of reservations in India:

1. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act enabled reservations for economically weaker sections exceeding the 50 percent ceiling limit.

2. The Supreme Court ruled in the Indra Sawhney case that the total reservation limit can never exceed 50 percent under any circumstance.

3. State governments possess legislative competence to grant reservations to socially and educationally backward classes within their respective jurisdictions.

4. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act eliminated the President's authority to specify socially and educationally backward classes for states.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

7. Consider the following statements regarding the introduction of polymer banknotes and substrate procurement in India:

1. Bidders for polymer substrate must certify that their materials contain no animal tallow or animal DNA.

2. Substrate manufacturers are required to firewall their operations in India completely from any facilities located in China and Pakistan.

3. The global Expression of Interest for polymer substrate mandates that all participating firms must be fully state-owned enterprises of G20 nations.

4. The Reserve Bank of India has mandated replacement of all existing cotton-paper currency with plastic notes within five years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

8. Consider the following statements regarding the structural challenges and supply-side pressures in India's sugar sector:

1. Lower carry-over opening stocks compared to previous years left insufficient buffers to absorb sudden supply shocks.

2. Crop damage from pests like top borer and fungal diseases such as red rot significantly reduced overall sugar production.

3. The ethanol-blended petrol program remains the sole and primary cause behind the recent unprecedented spike in retail sugar prices.

4. Heavy government regulation across the sugar-ethanol value chain limits the market's flexibility to correct shortfalls through timely imports.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

9. Consider the following statements regarding the national song 'Vande Mataram':

1. The song was first publicly sung at the 1896 Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress by Rabindranath Tagore.

2. The controversy surrounding its religious aspects primarily stems from its rich imagery personifying the nation as a Hindu mother goddess.

3. The Constitution of India grants 'Vande Mataram' an identical legal and formal national status as the national anthem, 'Jana Gana Mana'.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only

10. Consider the following statements regarding the ancient Indian textual tradition of the Manusmriti:

1. It is a canonical Dharmashastra text belonging to the smriti corpus that outlines social codes, duties, and laws.

2. The text was originally translated into English in the late 18th century under the title A Code of Gentoo Laws.

3. The text was widely utilized by British colonial administrators in British India as the foundational code for personal laws.

4. Current Hindu law is based on the Manusmriti as an enforceable primary source.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

11. Consider the following statements regarding India-Uzbekistan bilateral relations:

1. Both nations agreed to establish a framework for the long-term supply of uranium to India.

2. Uzbekistan is a landlocked Central Asian nation sharing land borders with countries like Kazakhstan and Afghanistan.

3. The two countries signed a commercial pact to enable UPI apps to scan Uzbekistan's national QR codes.

4. Both sides agreed to cooperate in the conservation of historical Buddhist sites located in Uzbekistan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only

12. With reference to the alteration of names of High Courts in India, which of the following is legally correct?

(a) A High Court's name can be changed automatically via executive notification whenever the corresponding State government alters the name of the State.

(b) The name of a High Court can be altered only through a legislative amendment enacted by Parliament.

(c) The State Legislature holds the exclusive constitutional power to pass a bill changing the name of the State High Court.

(d) The Supreme Court of India possesses the sole administrative authority to rename existing State High Courts through a judicial order.

13. Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary process of prorogation in India:

1. Prorogation terminates a session of the House, whereas adjournment sine die only suspends the sitting without specifying a date for reassembly.

2. The power to prorogue either House of Parliament is vested constitutionally in the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister or Union Cabinet.

3. Once a House has been adjourned sine die, it cannot be reconvened by the government unless a fresh presidential summons for a new session is issued.

4. Pending bills or notices in Parliament do not lapse merely due to the prorogation of the House, except for bills pending in the Lok Sabha which lapse upon its dissolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. With reference to the Aditya-L1 mission and its payloads mentioned in the context of recent solar flare studies, which of the following payloads is specifically designed to observe the sun in near-ultraviolet (NUV) wavelengths?

(a) Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS)

(b) High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS)

(d) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC)

15. Consider the following statements regarding the recently notified Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026:

1. The rules establish Indian Standard Time (IST) as the single reference for legal, administrative, and commercial purposes across India.

2. The primary responsibility for maintaining India's national standard of time, UTC (NPLI), lies with the CSIR-National Physical Laboratory.

3. The regulations mandate a total prohibition on utilizing India's indigenous satellite navigation system NavIC for time dissemination.

4. The rules aim to reduce heavy dependence on foreign satellite-based time sources across critical national infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. Consider the following statements regarding Cyber-Physical Systems (CPS) in India:

1. The National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) to build an integrated ecosystem connecting technology, talent, and enterprise.

2. BharatGen, supported under the NM-ICPS, is tasked with developing sovereign Artificial Intelligence capabilities tailored specifically to Indian languages and contexts.

3. The Drishti CPS Foundation at IIT Indore has developed CharakDT, which functions as a digital twin of the human body to simulate internal organs and test treatments virtually.

4. The TiHAN Foundation at IIT Hyderabad has established India's first dedicated proving ground for autonomous navigation to validate aerial and terrestrial autonomous vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four

17. Consider the following statements regarding India's position on the recent international ruling concerning the Indus Waters Treaty:

1. The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) asserted that the Court of Arbitration is an illegally constituted body established by the World Bank in patent breach of the terms of the 1960 treaty.

2. India actively participated in all the judicial hearings of the Court of Arbitration in The Hague to present its legal defense before officially rejecting the final award.

3. The Indian government maintained that its decision to keep the Indus Waters Treaty in abeyance remains fully in force.

4. The Court of Arbitration upheld India's sovereign right to unilaterally terminate the water-sharing pact following cross-border security incidents.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

18. Consider the following statements regarding demographic exercises and governance in India:

1. The population census in India is a Union subject statutorily backed by the Census Act, 1948, under Entry 69 of the Union List.

2. The forthcoming Census 2027 will mark India's first fully digital census and will incorporate caste enumeration for the first time since 1931.

3. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the conduct and administrative supervision of the decennial census fall concurrently under the jurisdiction of State legislatures and Parliament.

4. The responsibility for conducting the census operations across the country is vested directly in the NITI Aayog through its specialized demographic division.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 3 and 4 only

19. Consider the following statements:

1. The Future Circular Collider is an approved 91-km ring project scheduled to become fully operational and start colliding particles by the year 2030.

2. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC), housed by CERN, is situated inside a 27-km tunnel and was utilized to discover the Higgs boson.

3. The documentary titled The Peace Particle, which premiered at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, focuses on India's historical maritime trade routes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None of them

20. Consider the following statements regarding power infrastructure and vulture mortality in India:

1. Electrocution on transmission and distribution lines is now treated as an under-reported threat that can wipe out a local flock even after NSAID-linked declines.

2. A vulture’s large wingspan can bridge two live conductors at once, which is why perching on pylons near carcass dumps is especially lethal.

3. The Sudhauwala study near Dehradun found that shifting a livestock dump 2.4 km from high-tension lines stopped use of the feeding site by vultures.

4. Only extra-high-voltage lines cause fatal shocks; medium-voltage rural feeders are considered safe for large raptors.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

21. Which one of the following statements about Mettur Dam and its role in supplying water to Tamil Nadu’s Cauvery delta rice belt is not correct?

(a) Mettur Dam is constructed across the Cauvery River and serves as the primary irrigation lifeline for the delta districts of Tamil Nadu.

(b) In the case of canal irrigation fed by the Mettur Dam, water distribution is managed by individual farmers without any state or institutional oversight.

(c) While Mettur water storage dictates the agricultural calendar and paddy cultivation cycles, unseasonal monsoon failures can trigger severe inter-state water-sharing disputes.

(d) In both Mettur reservoir storage management and subsequent delta distribution, ultimate operational liability and water management infrastructure control rest with state water resource authorities and government boards.

22. Consider the following statements regarding India's plan to initiate natural-capital and climate-risk accounting of its blue economy:

1. The accounting framework aims to systematically value marine and coastal resources to integrate ecological degradation and climate risks into national economic planning.

2. The policy framework strictly mandates immediate public disclosure of all preliminary environmental vulnerability assessments to prevent localized industrial lobbying.

3. Relevant ministries and statistical agencies are tasked with developing localized metrics to measure ocean-based assets and climate-induced vulnerabilities without compromising strategic national infrastructure details.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

23. Ms. A is a mid-level officer in the Election Commission of India, assigned to oversee the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in a poll-bound state. During the process, she receives reports that several Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are excluding Aadhaar cards and Voter IDs from the list of acceptable documents for verification, despite a Supreme Court suggestion to consider these documents. A senior officer advises her to ignore these reports to avoid procedural delays, stating that the list is merely "illustrative." However, Ms. A believes that excluding these widely held documents could disenfranchise millions of legitimate voters, especially the poor and marginalized, thereby undermining the democratic process.

What amongst the following should Ms. A do now?

1. Immediately issue a directive to all BLOs to mandatorily accept Aadhaar and Voter IDs to ensure mass inclusion.

2. Recommend that the Commission formally expand the list of acceptable documents to include Aadhaar and Voter IDs, while ensuring procedural safeguards against forgery on a case-by-case basis.

3. Propose that a searchable list of all excluded voters, along with reasons for their exclusion, be made publicly available to ensure transparency and allow for objections.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

24. Consider the following statements regarding India's macroeconomic growth parameters:

1. Real GDP growth of 7.8% was recorded in the first quarter of FY 2026-27, exceeding the Reserve Bank of India’s earlier projections.

2. Gross Value Added (GVA) at constant prices registered a contraction during the corresponding period.

3. Manufacturing and services sectors exhibited robust expansion outpacing overall agricultural growth.

4. Nominal GDP growth surpassed real GDP growth figures due to prevailing macroeconomic price adjustments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

25. With reference to the recent commissioning of INS Nipun, consider the following statements:

1. INS Nipun is the second Diving Support Vessel of the Nistar class, designed to enhance the Navy's submarine rescue and deep-sea diving capabilities.

2. The vessel is the first purpose-built mother ship for the Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel on the Western Seaboard, filling a critical operational gap.

3. INS Nipun was indigenously designed and constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers, with over 90% indigenous content.

4. Its induction, alongside INS Nistar, now provides the Indian Navy with a two-coast submarine rescue capability for the first time.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

26. Consider the following statements regarding legacy waste management and biomining initiatives in Indian cities:

1. The "Mission Zero" initiative in Depalpur successfully demonstrated decentralized remediation and biomining of legacy waste to reclaim urban dump sites.

2. Major metropolitan centers like Delhi and Mumbai have successfully eliminated their massive legacy waste landfills entirely through rapid, decentralized bioremediation within strict statutory timelines.

3. Legacy waste remediation primarily involves the stabilization of old municipal solid waste through biomining, followed by the segregation and recovery of combustible fractions, inert materials, and recyclables.

4. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has consistently imposed environmental compensation penalties on various municipal authorities for failing to meet statutory deadlines for clearing legacy waste dumps.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

27. Consider the following statements regarding the National Accounts Statistics (NAS) – 2026 publication released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):

1. The publication introduces updated macroeconomic aggregates utilizing newly released base year series for structural metrics such as the Producer Price Index and Banking Services Price Index.

2. It restricts its analytical data scope to annual estimates, excluding sub-annual trends or quarterly GDP breakdowns.

3. The dataset incorporates updated benchmarks and administrative sources to present detailed institutional sector savings, capital formation patterns, and revised economic growth trajectories.

4. Revisions in Gross Value Added (GVA) at current prices are exclusively mapped to agricultural performance, omitting any adjustments for general government or departmental enterprises.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only

28. Consider the following statements regarding the integration of quantum-enabled technologies in modern life sciences:

1. Quantum sensors achieve unprecedented precision in detecting weak magnetic fields generated by cellular and neural activities.

2. Quantum computing eliminates classical computational limits, instantly solving complex biological protein-folding problems without approximation errors.

3. Quantum dots are utilized for high-resolution imaging and targeted tracking of specific biomolecules within living cells.

4. Quantum coherence plays a functional role in natural biological processes such as photosynthetic energy transfer.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3, and 4

29. Consider the following statements regarding India's critical mineral ecosystem:

1. Critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, and rare earth elements are vital for clean energy transitions, defense systems, and high-tech electronics.

2. India relies on domestic reserves for its critical mineral needs, eliminating the need for international supply chain partnerships.

3. The central government has amended the Mines and Minerals Act to auction critical and strategic mineral blocks to private sector entities.

4. KABIL (Kabil Khanij Bidesh India Ltd.) was established to scout, acquire, and develop critical mineral assets abroad for India's strategic security.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

30. In a drought-prone multi-community district, the nationwide rollout of the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB-G RAM G] Act, 2025 has triggered competing claims. Rural labourers and landless households demand immediate provision of the enhanced 125-day statutory wage-employment guarantee and timely unemployment allowance if work is delayed. Local farmers insist that the Act’s provision allowing States to notify an aggregate 60-day pause during peak sowing and harvesting must be enforced without exception, citing labour shortages and crop-loss risks. The State government has flagged fiscal stress arising from the revised 60:40 Centre–State cost-sharing pattern and the shift to a Centre-determined normative allocation. Meanwhile, several Gram Sabhas have prepared Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans prioritising small water-conservation works, while district authorities favour larger core-infrastructure projects for aggregation into the national rural infrastructure stack. Protests, work-site sit-ins and allegations of delayed wage payments have begun. As the responsible district officer, you must mediate a sustainable implementation pathway that upholds statutory worker rights, agricultural labour needs, fiscal federalism and durable asset creation.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful implementation process must begin by acknowledging the statutory 125-day employment guarantee and the right to unemployment allowance before discussing seasonal pauses or fiscal constraints.

2. The administration should immediately freeze all works for 60 days to protect farmers, as agricultural needs outweigh the claims of a limited number of wage-seekers.

3. Creating a multi-stakeholder platform—including Gram Sabha representatives, farmer groups, labour unions, environmental and engineering experts, and State finance officials—to jointly prioritise works under the four thematic domains (water security, core rural infrastructure, livelihood infrastructure and climate-resilience works).

4. Conducting a transparent, evidence-based review of the State’s normative allocation, pending MGNREGS liabilities and proposed Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans, and placing the findings in the public domain to enable cooperative-federalism-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

31. Consider the following statements regarding the V-Dem Democracy Index:

1. It is published annually by an academic research institute based in Sweden.

2. The index classifies India under the electoral democracy category.

3. India's recent index score is rated at its lowest since 1975.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

32. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Constitution of India provides a specific constitutional provision for appointing a distinguished jurist directly to the Supreme Court.

2. This provision has been extensively utilized by the collegium to elevate prominent academic lawyers and legal scholars to the apex court.

3. The recommendation for such an appointment originates solely at the discretion of the President.

4. To date, no distinguished jurist has ever been appointed as a Supreme Court judge under this specific provision.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2, and 4 only d) 1 and 3 only

33. With reference to the linkage between the Census and the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Census is a comprehensive enumeration of all usual residents regardless of citizenship status, while the NRC is a verified list of Indian citizens only.

2. Conducting an NRC before a Census would make the subsequent Census enumeration unnecessary and redundant.

3. The legal framework under the Citizenship Rules provides for the preparation of a Population Register and its subsequent verification for the citizens' register.

4. Census data collection is voluntary, whereas providing information for the NRC is mandatory under the Census Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

34. Consider the following statements regarding assault rifles and small arms associated with the Indian Armed Forces:

1. The AK-203 is a 7.62×39mm assault rifle jointly manufactured in India through a bilateral defense partnership with Russia.

2. The Sig Sauer SIG716 is an indigenous close-quarters battle carbine designed and developed by the Ordnance Factory Board.

3. The Negev NG7 is a light machine gun procured from Israel to fulfill the frontline infantry requirements for sustained automatic fire.

4. The INSAS rifle continues to be the primary standard-issue frontline service weapon across all active infantry battalions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1 and 3 only

35. With reference to the management of e-waste in India, consider the following statements:

1. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022 mandate EPR targets of 70% for producers by FY 2025-26 and 80% from FY 2027-28 onwards.

2. NITI Aayog has estimated India's annual economic value of e-waste at approximately ₹51,000 crore, of which only about 18% is currently recovered.

3. Over 14 lakh metric tonnes of e-waste was generated in India during 2025-26, with formal recycling covering nearly 85% of the total.

4. The informal sector in India handles over 60% of e-waste recycling contributing significantly to resource recovery.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

36. Consider the following statements regarding the application of LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) technology in archaeological surveys:

1. LiDAR technology penetrates deep underground water tables to map submerged maritime structures directly.

2. LiDAR surveys are deployed to map buried ruins and historical footprints in heritage zones like Lakkundi.

3. LiDAR remote sensing data allows archaeologists to generate high-resolution 3D topographic models that reveal micro-topographic anomalies obscured by vegetation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Consider the following statements:

1. Myristica swamps of the southern Western Ghats are primitive freshwater swamp forests whose trees show pneumatophores and stilt roots and which help regulate floods and recharge groundwater.

2. Unlike the Sundarbans, which are saline mangrove wetlands, Myristica swamps grow on freshwater, waterlogged alluvial soils and survive mainly as small patches in Kerala, Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra.

3. High-altitude peat bogs of the Himalaya and the lateritic plateaus of the Western Ghats are the same ecosystem as Myristica swamps and share the same dominant nutmeg trees.

4. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is India’s largest remaining Myristica swamp and has been notified as a Ramsar site for that reason.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

38. With reference to the management of crop residue and the issue of stubble burning in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) has proposed the creation of a dedicated ‘Parali Protection Force’ at district and block levels to monitor and prevent stubble burning.

2. Biochar, a carbon-rich material produced by heating biomass under limited oxygen, when applied to soil can improve water retention and lock away carbon for over a century.

3. The Pusa Decomposer, a bio-solution developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), uses a consortium of fungal species to accelerate the decomposition of crop residue.

4. The centralized model of processing crop residue in large industrial plants has been identified as the most economically viable solution, as it eliminates the need for farmers to handle bulky material.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

39. Consider the following statements regarding India's current account balance:

1. A wider merchandise trade deficit was the primary reason for the widening of the current account deficit.

2. Stronger net services receipts and higher remittances fully offset the impact of the rising trade deficit.

3. The current account deficit is financed primarily through a surplus in the capital account.

4. Foreign portfolio capital inflows are recorded under the current account component of the balance of payments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

40. Consider the following statements about the 2026 Ramon Magsaysay Award laureates and their work:

1. Tommy Koh of Singapore is a diplomat and legal scholar associated with the negotiations that produced the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.

2. Runa Khan of Bangladesh founded Friendship, which takes health care, education and climate-adaptation support to remote riverine and char communities.

3. Bo Kyi of Myanmar co-founded the Assistance Association for Political Prisoners to document detention and support political prisoners and their families.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. With reference to India's Hub & Spoke framework for international passenger movement, consider the following statements:

1. The Hub-and-Spoke model aims to position India as the preferred aviation hub for Indian travellers by 2030 and a leading global aviation hub by 2047.

2. Under this framework, international passengers complete immigration and customs formalities at the hub airport, not at the originating spoke airport.

3. Ahmedabad became the third airport to be integrated into this framework, after Varanasi and Amritsar.

4. The government plans to expand Hub & Spoke connectivity to 22 more airports in the next phase, including Surat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. With reference to coastal corridors in India, consider the following statements:

1. The East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC), India's first coastal economic corridor, stretches from Kolkata to Kanyakumari and is being implemented in phases.

2. The recently approved Rameshwar-Paradeep Coastal Highway in Odisha will serve as an alternative route to NH-16 and NH-316.

3. The Visakhapatnam-Bhogapuram Coastal Corridor is designed to connect the city with the upcoming Bhogapuram International Airport.

4. The Mumbai-Vadhavan Expressway Corridor is planned as a fully access-controlled coastal expressway that includes India's longest sea link.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

43. Consider the following statements on watershed development in India:

1. A watershed is planned as a geo-hydrological unit from ridge to valley so that runoff, soil and recharge are treated as one system, not field by field.

2. WDC-PMKSY 2.0, run by the Department of Land Resources, shifts emphasis from purely mechanical earthworks toward biological measures, livelihoods and springshed revival in hills.

3. Integrated Watershed Management Programme was formed by merging DPAP, DDP and IWDP and was later placed as the watershed component of PMKSY.

4. Watershed development is confined to building large inter-basin dams and interlinking rivers where Gram Sabhas have minimum role in project institutions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Consider the following statements regarding the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund:

1. The fund functions primarily by providing conventional direct government grants.

2. It operates under the aegis of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) to catalyze private sector R&D.

3. Financial assistance is channeled through Second-Level Fund Managers (SLFMs) using modalities such as long-term low-interest loans, equity investments, and contributions to a Deep-Tech Fund of Funds.

4. The fund explicitly targets sunrise and strategic sectors like artificial intelligence, advanced clean energy, quantum technologies, and biotechnology.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

45. Consider the following statements regarding recent policy measures, national accounts revision, and macroeconomic performance in India:

1. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) incorporated the Output Producer Price Index (PPI) and Banking Services Price Index (BkSPI) with a base year of 2022-23 to update national account statistics.

2. The newly introduced Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme features a substantial financial outlay through 2030-31 designed to expand production, deepen value addition, and enhance global competitiveness.

3. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and S&P Global Ratings have recently revised India's sovereign long-term rating to speculative grade due to persistent global trade uncertainties.

4. Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) and exports witnessed a significant expansion, reinforcing domestic investment and manufacturing momentum.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. With reference to the 1996 Treaty on Sharing of the Ganga/Ganges Waters at Farakka between India and Bangladesh, consider the following statements:

1. The Treaty remains in force for thirty years from the date of signature and is renewable only on the basis of mutual consent.

2. Sharing of waters is confined to the lean season (1 January–31 May) and is calculated in successive ten-day periods according to a flow-based formula at Farakka.

3. If availability at Farakka is 75,000 cusecs or more, India is entitled to 40,000 cusecs and Bangladesh receives the balance of the flow.

4. The Treaty contains a fail-safe provision requiring India to continue releasing not less than 90 percent of Bangladesh’s share under the original formula if the parties cannot agree on adjustments after a review.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

47. Consider the following pairs:

Indigenous precision-guided munition Typical description

1. Khagantak-243 Long-range glide bomb (about 300 kg class) jointly developed by JSR Dynamics and BEL; first drop trial from Su-30MKI; stand-off range reported above 140 km

2. Gaurav DRDO-developed 1,000 kg class Long Range Glide Bomb; release trials from Su-30MKI with demonstrated range of about 100 km

3. SAAW DRDO-developed lightweight precision-guided bomb intended primarily against runways and other airfield infrastructure; stand-off range of about 100 km

4. Gautham Winged 1,000 kg class cruise missile with a turbojet engine and range exceeding 500 km

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

48. Consider the following statements regarding India's acquisition of the Javelin anti-tank missile system:

1. It provides a battle-proven, fire-and-forget capability for infantry to engage enemy armour.

2. It was acquired under the Foreign Military Sales programme to address an immediate operational gap.

3. The agreement with the US involves outright purchase without co-production possibilities.

4. The acquisition is intended to replace India's indigenous MPATGM programme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

49. With reference to the information available from ancient Tamil temple inscriptions, consider the following statements:

1. Chola inscriptions show that royal permission was mandatory for structural changes like converting brick temples to stone (katrali).

2. Inscriptions indicate that conservation efforts in the Chola period were exclusively funded and executed by the royalty.

3. The Uthiramerur inscriptions provide detailed provisions for local self-governance, including rules for disqualifying elected committee members.

4. Tamil inscriptions provide evidence of precise measuring scales (muzham) used in temple construction, with regional variations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

50. With reference to the proposed use of ‘totalisers’ in the counting of votes recorded in Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. A totaliser is designed to connect a cluster of EVM Control Units (typically about 14) and display only the combined candidate-wise tally, not booth-wise figures.

2. Rule 59A of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 already permits mixing of paper ballots from more than one polling station before counting in specified circumstances.

3. The Law Commission of India, in its 255th Report, recommended a provision for totalisation of EVM votes.

4. Introduction of totalisers for EVMs is done by the Election Commission irrespective of the Conduct of Elections Rules.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

51. With reference to Article 142 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. It empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in a cause or matter pending before it.

2. An order made under Article 142(1) is enforceable throughout the territory of India.

3. The same plenary power to do “complete justice” is expressly conferred on High Courts under Article 226.

4. Constitution Bench rulings have held that Article 142 may supplement, but cannot ordinarily supplant, the substantive law applicable to a case.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52. Consider the following pairs relating to the Indian national movement:

Event / development Associated fact as commonly recorded

1. First session of the Indian National Congress (1885) Held at Bombay under the presidency of W. C. Bonnerjea

2. Indian Councils Act, 1892 Followed Charles Bradlaugh’s draft Bill for reform and expansion of the Legislative Councils

3. Swaraj Party (1923) Organised by C. R. Das, Motilal Nehru and N. C. Kelkar; favoured the tactic of “mend or end” the constitution

4. Individual Civil Disobedience (1940) Vinoba Bhave was the first satyagrahi to be arrested

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

53. With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework of the Census of India from 1951 to Census 2027, consider the following statements:

1. “Census” is a Union subject under Entry 69 of the Seventh Schedule; Parliament alone can legislate on it.

2. Every Census since Independence has been conducted under the Census Act, 1948, and the Census Rules, 1990 (as amended).

3. The Constitution itself mandates that a Census must be held every ten years.

4. Individual returns collected under the Census Act are confidential and cannot be used as evidence in any court (subject to the Act).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

54. With reference to 'Mata ni Pachhedi', consider the following statements:

1. It is a ritual textile by the Chitara community featuring Goddess Durga.

2. It began as a protest against temple entry restrictions over 300 years ago.

3. The art form received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2023.

4. The community resides largely in Mumbai and its surrounding areas.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

55. With reference to NASA's Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope, consider the following statements:

1. It is designed to study dark energy, dark matter, and exoplanets using infrared surveys with a wide field of view.

2. Its primary instrument, the Wide Field Instrument, captures infrared images with a field of view 100 times larger than Hubble's.

3. The telescope carries a coronagraph to demonstrate advanced technology for directly imaging Jupiter-like exoplanets.

4. It is positioned at the Earth-Moon Lagrange Point 1 to minimize thermal interference from Earth.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

56. Reclaimed Asphalt Pavement (RAP) technology, recently demonstrated at high replacement levels on Indian national highways, refers to which of the following?

(a) Use of discarded plastic waste as a complete substitute for bitumen in rigid concrete pavements

(b) Milling of existing bituminous pavement and reuse of the recovered material, after processing and rejuvenation, in new asphalt mixes

(d) In-situ replacement of all granular sub-base layers with untreated municipal solid waste

57. With reference to the 'Districts as Export Hubs' (DEH) initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It is a funding scheme that provides direct financial assistance to districts for export-related infrastructure.

2. The initiative replaces the One District One Product (ODOP) programme.

3. It operates through institutional mechanisms at the state and district levels, including District Export Promotion Committees.

4. The initiative aims to cover all districts across the country by identifying products and services with export potential.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

58. What best describes the double deflation method with reference to national income accounting and macroeconomic measurement in India?

(a) A statistical accounting technique used to calculate real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by separately deflating gross output and intermediate consumption using specific price indices.

(b) A central banking monetary policy tool used to neutralize double-digit inflation by simultaneously raising cash reserve ratios and repo rates.

(c) An international trade mechanism used by the World Trade Organization to counter dual-currency pricing manipulation in developing economies.

(d) A fiscal consolidation strategy wherein governments simultaneously cut public expenditure and increase direct taxation to stabilize the debt-to-GDP ratio.

59. With reference to the compilation of Quarterly Estimates of GDP in India, what best describes the benchmark-indicator approach?

(a) Annual GDP estimates serve as the benchmark; high-frequency monthly or quarterly indicators are used to distribute and update that benchmark into quarterly GDP.

(b) Only the Wholesale Price Index is used as a single benchmark to convert all current-price GDP into constant-price GDP.

(c) The Reserve Bank of India sets a policy-rate benchmark and indicators of inflation are then used to project nominal GDP.

(d) State GSDP figures are simply added up without any national benchmark or high-frequency indicator.

60. With reference to Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) in India, consider the following statements:

1. PFCE is defined as the expenditure incurred by resident households and non-profit institutions on the final consumption of goods and services.

2. It is the largest component of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) on the demand side, contributing approximately 56% to nominal GDP.

3. It captures all government capital expenditure on infrastructure projects like bridges and highways.

4. The estimation of PFCE in India's national accounts includes items like cereals, pulses, and milk products, with values derived from a combination of production data and retail prices.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

61. Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework of the legal profession and statutory bodies in India:

1. The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body established under the Advocates Act, 1961, tasked with setting standards for professional conduct and legal education in the country.

2. Under the provisions of the Advocates Act, the Attorney-General for India and the Solicitor-General for India serve as permanent ex-officio members of the Bar Council of India.

3. The Supreme Court of India holds the constitutional power to directly appoint and remove the elected chairperson of the Bar Council of India.

4. State Bar Councils are statutorily required to elect their office-bearers and their representatives to the Bar Council of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. With reference to the 'Global Mutirão' concept highlighted at COP30, consider the following statements:

1. The term 'Mutirão' originates from the Tupi-Guarani language and refers to a collective community effort or shared consensus.

2. The Global Mutirão Agreement signed at COP30 prioritizes cooperation and implementation over new mandatory emissions reduction targets.

3. The Global Mutirão approach was adopted to promote participatory climate governance involving governments, indigenous peoples, and civil society.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following countries:

1. Bahrain

2. Qatar

3. Saudi Arabia

4. United Arab Emirates

5. Yemen

Which of the above countries share a land border with the Sultanate of Oman?

a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 2, 3, and 5 only c) 3, 4 and 5 only d) 1, 4, and 5 only

64. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pichavaram mangrove ecosystem:

I. The Pichavaram mangrove ecosystem has been designated as a Ramsar site and is recognized as one of India's largest mangrove forests, located between the Vellar and Coleroon estuaries.

II. A recent economic valuation study estimated the Total Economic Value (TEV) of the Pichavaram mangroves at ₹2,485.38 crore, with soil organic carbon alone accounting for the largest share of this value.

III. Conservation of the Pichavaram mangroves is solely dependent on government-led initiatives without any involvement from local communities.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is a factual statement about the Pichavaram mangroves' official status and location.

2. Statement II supports the economic rationale for conserving the Pichavaram mangroves.

3. Statement III contradicts the community participation approach observed in restoration efforts like the Buckingham Canal project.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

65. Consider the following statements:

1. Godavari water is released to North Coastal Andhra Pradesh through the Polavaram Left Main Canal, feeding systems such as Yeleru, Pampa and Tandava.

2. Narmada water is carried into drought-prone parts of Gujarat and on into Rajasthan by the main canal of the Sardar Sarovar Project.

3. Sutlej–Beas water is taken from the Harike Barrage into western Rajasthan by the Indira Gandhi Canal.

4. Krishna water is lifted at Kaleshwaram and delivered across the Thar Desert to command areas in Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

66. With reference to the flood dynamics of the Ganga–Damodar river system, consider the following statements:

1. The Damodar River, a key tributary of the Ganga, is historically known as the "Sorrow of Bengal" due to its frequent and devastating floods in the lower basin.

2. Construction of dams and reservoirs by the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) has eliminated flood hazards in the lower Damodar basin.

3. A combination of intense monsoonal rainfall, reduced channel carrying capacity due to siltation, and regulated water releases from upstream dams are the primary drivers of flood hazards in the region.

4. The flood hazard is uniformly distributed across the entire Damodar basin, with the upstream hilly regions experiencing the most severe impacts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

67. With reference to reservation policy developments, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court sought an Action Taken Report on implementing SC sub-classification.

2. Maharashtra reviewed its bar on reserved candidates with relaxations competing for open posts.

3. The Centre opposed creamy layer exclusion within SC and ST quotas.

4. The Supreme Court rejected a plea challenging the ₹8 lakh EWS income ceiling.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

68. Consider the following statements with reference to election disputes, VVPAT verification and writ jurisdiction:

I. Article 329(b) requires a challenge to a Legislative Assembly result to be by election petition; a writ court cannot, by ordering 100% counting of VVPAT slips, declare a candidate elected.

II. The Madras High Court dismissed the Kolathur writ as not maintainable, held that 5% EVM–VVPAT verification is only an additional Supreme Court safeguard, and accepted that entertaining such writs would open a “Pandora’s box”.

III. Expiry of the 45-day period for an election petition enlarges Article 226 so that the High Court must itself order full VVPAT counting and substitute the returned candidate.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the constitutional design set out in statement I.

2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

3. Statement I and statement III together establish that writ courts replace the election tribunal whenever EVMs are questioned.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

69. The terms "stripping salt" and "cleaning salt" recently appeared in news reports in connection with which of the following investigations?

a) Forensic examination of chemical adulterants seized during the multi-state counterfeit currency and sovereign gold bond racketeering probe.

b) Investigation into the alleged misappropriation and removal of gold plating from temple artifacts and doorframes at Sabarimala.

c) Metallurgical analysis of raw materials illegally imported for industrial gold refining in the Special Economic Zones of Gujarat.

d) Detection of illegal chemical extraction processes used by smuggling syndicates operating gold-detox units near India's international borders.

70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Case) List-II (Direction / theme)

A. Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2021) 1. Arrest only after recorded reasons under Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure; caution in offences such as Section 498-A

B. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) 2. CCTV cameras at police stations, including lock-ups and rooms of inspectors and sub-inspectors, with working footage

C. Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006) 3. Eleven-point safeguards on arrest, memo of arrest, medical examination and right to have a relative informed

D. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014) 4. State Security Commission, fixed tenure of the Director General of Police, and separation of investigation from law and order

Codes:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

71. With reference to the Bishkek Declaration (2026), consider the following statements:

1. It was adopted at the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Heads of State meeting in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan after which the rotating chair passed to Russia.

2. It condemned military strikes on the territory of Iran as contrary to the UN Charter and reaffirmed Iran’s right, as a party to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, to a peaceful nuclear programme.

3. It declared the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation to be a bloc with a NATO-style collective-defence pledge.

4. The Declaration condemned terrorism in all its forms, rejected "double standards" in counter-terrorism, and called for dismantling terrorist financing and safe havens.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

72. With reference to recent development projects supported by India, consider the following statements:

1. India extended its first-ever rupee-denominated line of credit to Mauritius for a water pipeline replacement project.

2. The Thilamale Bridge project in the Maldives is being financed through a $500-million Indian package comprising a grant and a line of credit.

3. India signed a ₹4,000-crore line of credit agreement with Bhutan to support its 13th Five-Year Plan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

73. With reference to Gross Value Added (GVA), consider the following statements:

1. GVA is GDP minus net indirect taxes.

2. GVA grew 8.2% in Q1FY27, exceeding GDP growth.

3. A negative GVA deflator means output prices fell.

4. Nominal mining GVA grew despite real GVA contraction.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. With reference to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), consider the following statements:

1. An Enforcement Directorate case under the PMLA must rest on a scheduled predicate offence; alleged “proceeds of crime” cannot stand in a vacuum.

2. If the Central Bureau of Investigation delays a chargesheet in the bank-fraud First Information Report, the PMLA complaint automatically lapses after three years.

3. Letters of credit and other non-fund-based bank facilities can not form part of a money-laundering probe because no cash is disbursed to the borrower.

4. The Enforcement Directorate may claim jurisdiction over overseas accounts if the suspected laundering is linked to transactions in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

75. With reference to the Ganga–Ghaghra system, consider the following statements:

1. The Ghaghra joins the Ganga at Prayagraj, west of the Yamuna confluence.

2. The Ghaghra is a right-bank peninsular tributary like the Son.

3. The Ghaghra rises in the Himalaya as the Karnali and meets the Ganga near Chhapra.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements.

(d) There is no correct statement.

76. Consider the following statements about Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposits:

1. Non-Resident Indians open these accounts, where the balance is held only in Indian rupees.

2. The exchange risk on an FCNR(B) deposit is borne by the Reserve Bank of India.

3. FCNR(B) deposits are current-account balances that may be withdrawn on demand.

4. Interest on an FCNR(B) deposit is paid in rupees and cannot be repatriated.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(d) There is no correct statement.

77. With reference to the Great Game and a “New Great Game” after Bishkek, consider the following statements:

1. The classical Great Game was nineteenth-century British–Russian rivalry across Central Asia, with British India as the prize.

2. Arthur Conolly used the phrase around 1840; Kipling’s Kim and Hopkirk later popularised the map.

3. Some histories add Tsarist advance, Germany’s Drang nach Osten, and a Bolshevik phase after 1917.

4. The Bishkek Declaration officially named a New Great Game spanning Central Asia, the Arctic and the Indo-Pacific.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

78. Which of the following statements about the term "Early Harvest" is/are correct?

1. In the context of international trade, an Early Harvest Scheme is a preliminary agreement that liberalizes tariffs on certain goods before the conclusion of a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA).

2. In the context of India-China border negotiations, an "early harvest" approach refers to settling the entire boundary dispute in one comprehensive package agreement.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which of the following statements about the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is/are correct?

1. It is a statutory body under Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013, and recommends accounting and auditing standards to the Central Government.

2. Its jurisdiction covers all registered companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs) operating within the country, regardless of their size or turnover.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. Which of the following statements regarding geothermal energy and the Puga wells are correct?

1. Puga Valley in Ladakh is a high-altitude Himalayan geothermal field; the ONGC Energy Centre has completed two wells there about 1,000 metres deep.

2. The Puga wells are intended to produce crude oil from the Tethyan basin.

3. The site is meant to support India’s first demonstration-scale geothermal plant of about 1 MW, plus space heating and greenhouse use.

4. Geothermal output is as intermittent as solar photovoltaic power.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

81. Consider the following statements about the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):

1. It is a four-stage emergency response mechanism for the National Capital Region, with actions triggered by specific Air Quality Index (AQI) thresholds.

2. The plan has been revised to shift from a primarily reactive approach to a more proactive one, based on air quality forecasts.

3. Its implementation authority rests with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which is responsible for enforcing its measures.

4. Under the revised framework, certain stricter measures that were previously reserved for higher stages can now be implemented at lower AQI stages.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. Which of the following statements regarding the India–European Union Free Trade Agreement are correct?

1. Negotiations launched in 2007 were announced as concluded in January 2026, subject to legal scrubbing and ratification by the Union and its member States.

2. The pact requires India to cut tariffs on all cereals, dairy and genetically modified foods from the day it enters into force.

3. The European Union is to remove duties on the bulk of Indian goods by value, including several labour-intensive export lines, with a large share duty-free on entry into force.

4. The agreement creates a customs union with free movement of labour and a single external tariff for India and the twenty-seven member States.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

83. Consider the following statements about the recent developments concerning the Falkland Islands / Las Malvinas:

1. Argentine has announced plans to impose sanctions on oil companies operating near the islands, identifying the Sea Lion oilfield as a "clear and present danger" to Argentina's sovereignty claim.

2. The United States has officially ended its long-standing neutrality on the Falklands dispute and formally recognized Argentina's sovereignty over the islands.

3. The UK government has reiterated its commitment to the islands, citing the 2013 referendum in which 99.8% of islanders voted to remain a British Overseas Territory as the basis for its position.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. Consider the following statements about the strategic ports of Mokha and Hodeida:

1. Both Mokha and Hodeida are port cities located on Yemen's Red Sea coast.

2. The Bab al-Mandeb Strait, which connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean, is located near the port of Mokha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

85. An arrangement under which some European Union states would send persons whose asylum claims have failed to centres in countries outside the Union, for return processing rather than keeping them inside the bloc, is referred to as:

(a) Return hubs

(b) Dublin first-country-of-entry rule

(d) Temporary Protection Directive

86. Which of the following statements about the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea as the “constitution of the oceans” is/are correct?

1. The Convention, opened for signature in 1982 after the Third United Nations Conference, has about 172 parties and near-universal coverage.

2. The United States is not a party but treats the Convention as the main law of the sea; Iran is not a party either.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. The phrase “long legacy of impunity,” used in the recent Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights refers to:

(a) The absence of meaningful criminal accountability for alleged international crimes from the nearly three-decade armed conflict

(b) The delay in holding Provincial Council elections promised under the Thirteenth Amendment

(d) None of these

88. With reference to soda ash, consider the following statements:

1. Soda ash is the commercial name for sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃), used mainly in glass, detergents and other alkali chemicals.

2. Natural soda ash is commonly obtained from trona; Lake Magadi in Kenya’s Rift Valley is a major natural source.

3. The Solvay (ammonia–soda) process makes synthetic soda ash from brine and limestone.

4. Soda ash occurs only as a seawater evaporite in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

89. With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s variable-rate reverse repo and surplus liquidity, consider the following statements:

1. A variable-rate reverse repo auction is used to absorb surplus rupee liquidity by parking bank funds with the Reserve Bank of India.

2. Large Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) inflows, once swapped into rupees, can swell domestic surplus and prompt such absorption.

3. A variable-rate reverse repo injects durable liquidity into banks in the same way as a long-term repo operation.

4. Foreign portfolio equity inflows are recorded on the current account and therefore cannot affect rupee liquidity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

90. Which of the following statements regarding coal gasification initiatives in India are correct?

1. Coal gasification converts coal into synthesis gas (syngas), which can be utilized to produce downstream products like synthetic natural gas, ammonia, and methanol.

2. The process is widely promoted as a cleaner alternative to direct coal combustion because it prevents sulfur dioxide and particulate matter emissions.

3. The Indian government has approved financial incentive schemes to commercialize coal gasification projects and reduce reliance on energy imports.

4. Underground coal gasification (UCG) involves extracting energy from coal seams in situ without the need for traditional underground mining.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

91. With reference to India’s model Bilateral Investment Treaty, consider the following statements:

1. After several investor–State claims, India terminated many old treaties and adopted a 2015 model text as the base for new talks.

2. The 2015 model leans more toward the host State’s right to regulate than toward easy international arbitration for investors.

3. The Law Commission of India examined the draft model in its 260th Report before the 2015 text was adopted.

4. Before the Union Cabinet approves negotiations, every treaty built on the 2015 model is ratified on the floor of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

92. With reference to the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement, consider the following statements:

1. It was signed in Mecca in August 2026 by Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan.

2. It states that an armed attack on any one of the three shall be regarded as an attack on all.

3. It makes Türkiye leave the North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

4. A follow-up meeting agreed to set up a secretariat in Saudi Arabia, with the first secretary-general from Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

93. Which of the following ports and their respective host countries are correctly matched?

1. Port of Posorja : Ecuador

2. Port of Antwerp-Bruges : Belgium

3. Piraeus Port : Greece

4. Tanger Med Port : Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. Which of the following statements regarding aviation safety protocols and the regulatory response to the flight incident are correct?

1. The Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) is mandated to investigate serious civil aircraft accidents and major incidents independently under international civil aviation norms.

2. Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) regulations strictly prohibit flight crew members from operating aircraft under the influence of psychoactive substances.

3. Commercial aircraft accident investigations involving foreign-manufactured airframes (such as Airbus) entirely exclude foreign safety agencies from technical data analysis.

4. The preliminary findings routinely examine critical technical metrics, including redundant hydraulic systems and flight control computer logs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

95. Consider the following statements:

1. The Shri Guru Gorakhnath Community Reserve at Kajalheri holds an estimated 150–200 Indian peacock softshell and related turtles.

2. The species found here enjoy Schedule I protection under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, the same top tier as the tiger and rhinoceros.

3. Untreated sewage has fouled the pond; turtles show disease and have left toward fields, roads and the Kishangarh canal.

4. The site is a National Park notified by the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

96. With reference to EOS-05, consider the following statements:

1. EOS-05 is India’s first dedicated Earth-imaging satellite meant to work from geosynchronous orbit, about 36,000 km above Earth.

2. It was launched on GSLV-F17 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre and first placed in a sub-geosynchronous transfer orbit.

3. From geosynchronous orbit it can watch the same wide region continuously, unlike low-Earth-orbit imagers that only pass over India for minutes.

4. EOS-05 is a polar sun-synchronous satellite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Consider the following statements about 'Chipflation', a term recently in the news:

1. It is a phenomenon where memory chips, instead of getting cheaper over time, become more expensive and harder to find due to supply squeezes.

2. The primary driver of chipflation is the massive investment by big tech companies in artificial intelligence data centres, which are absorbing a significant portion of global memory chip supply.

3. Chipmakers are diverting manufacturing capacity to high-margin AI chips, leading to a supply shortfall for memory chips used in everyday consumer electronics like smartphones and laptops.

4. The impact of chipflation is limited to data centres and does not affect consumer prices for electronics like PCs and smartphones.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

98. Consider the following statements about the use of thorium fuel in India's Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs):

1. Thorium is a fertile material and must be converted to fissile Uranium-233 in a nuclear reactor before it can be used to generate energy.

2. India's three-stage nuclear programme aims to utilise thorium in the third stage after the successful deployment of Fast Breeder Reactors.

3. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam attained criticality in April 2026, marking India's entry into the second stage of the nuclear programme.

4. India currently possesses the world's largest reserves of thorium and has developed the capability to fabricate Uranium-233 fuel for research reactors like KAMINI.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. Consider the following statements regarding the use of Facial Recognition Technology by law enforcement in India:

1. The Supreme Court has ruled that State invasion of privacy must be authorised by law and proportionate.

2. Automated Facial Recognition Systems (AFRS) deployed by law enforcement agencies operate under a dedicated, comprehensive parliamentary statute.

3. The Supreme Court has issued a nationwide ban on all police use of facial recognition.

4. The Supreme Court has delegated the adjudication of FRT's constitutional validity to a committee.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 4 only

100. With reference to a Glacial Lake Outburst Flood, consider the following statements:

1. A GLOF is a sudden release of water from a glacial lake after failure of an ice, moraine or landslide dam.

2. In the Himalaya, expanding proglacial lakes and weak moraine dams raise GLOF risk as glaciers retreat.

3. The South Lhonak lake outburst in Sikkim (2023) is a recent Indian example of this hazard.

4. Glacial Lake Outburst Floods are restricted to high-altitude mountain ranges in Asia.

5. The catastrophic flash flood on the Nepal-Tibet border in August 2026 was officially confirmed to have been caused by a GLOF.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

General Studies Paper 1 — Mock Test 1 UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2027

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