UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2026: Analysis (Questions 41–60)
41. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?
1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: Genetic medicines (gene therapy, gene editing, RNA therapies, etc.) aim to correct or compensate for faulty genes causing disease.Statement 2 is correct: Delivery typically uses engineered viral vectors (e.g., AAV, lentivirus) or non-viral carriers such as lipid nanoparticles (LNPs).Statement 3 is incorrect: These approaches target specific genes or sequences; they do not alter the entire DNA sequence.
Proper nouns / key terms and sources
The main terms are genetic medicine(s) (an umbrella for gene therapy, gene editing, nucleic-acid therapeutics), engineered viruses (viral vectors), and lipid nanoparticles (LNPs, non-viral carriers).
PIB / government sources: PIB has covered India’s gene-therapy milestones, including the first in-human gene therapy for haemophilia A (lentiviral vector, supported by the Department of Biotechnology / CSCR-CMC Vellore, 2024) and related DBT/CSIR work on indigenous gene-editing tools (e.g., for sickle-cell disease).
The Hindu and Indian Express: Frequent coverage of gene therapy and gene editing. Indian Express reported on the CSIR-IGIB indigenous CRISPR-like tool transferred to Serum Institute for sickle-cell therapy (Birsa-101, 2025). The Hindu and other outlets have covered genomic mapping, gene-editing advances, and related research. LNP delivery is routinely mentioned in global and Indian reports on mRNA/gene therapies and cholesterol-lowering gene-editing trials.
Other English newspapers / outlets: The Print, Financial Express, and others have discussed “one-and-done” gene-editing therapies (including LNP-delivered base editors for cholesterol), CRISPR applications, and India’s progress in the field. International science reporting (widely carried or referenced in Indian media) consistently notes engineered viruses and LNPs as standard carriers.
42. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?
1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct in essence: autoregressive LLMs compute a probability distribution over possible next tokens/words and generate text by selecting from that distribution (commonly the highest-probability token under greedy decoding, or via sampling methods).Statement 2 is correct: training uses mathematical optimization (e.g., gradient descent) to minimize a loss function that measures prediction errors.Statement 3 is incorrect: LLMs can and do produce biased outputs that reflect biases in their training data; they are not inherently unbiased.
Proper nouns evaluationThe main proper noun/term is Large Language Models (LLMs).
PIB (Press Information Bureau): LLMs and generative AI appear frequently in official releases on India’s AI initiatives, National Strategy on AI, Responsible AI guidelines, IndiaAI Mission, and related technology/policy updates (e.g., references to foundation models, generative AI applications, and bias/safety concerns).
The Hindu / The Hindu Business Line: Extensive coverage of LLMs since the ChatGPT era (2022–2023 onward), including explainers on how they work (next-token prediction, training via optimization), applications, risks such as bias/hallucinations/digital divide, and Indian policy responses. Opinion and technology pages regularly discuss probabilistic generation and training mechanics.
Indian Express and other English newspapers (e.g., Business Standard, Economic Times, Hindustan Times): Regular reporting and analysis on LLMs in the context of AI adoption in India, education, governance, bias issues, and global developments. Coverage intensified with the rise of generative AI tools and continues in technology and policy sections.
43. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?
1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: Stealth designs minimise radar cross-section (RCS) through shaping and coatings of Radar Absorbing Material (RAM) that convert incident radar energy into heat.
Statement 2 is correct: Stealth coatings and designs are typically optimised for certain radar bands; objects can still be detected (or more readily detected) by radars operating at other specific frequencies (e.g., lower-frequency or multi-static systems).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Metamaterials used in stealth applications are engineered to absorb, redirect, or cloak electromagnetic waves so as to reduce backscattering toward the radar source (thereby lowering RCS). They are not applied to increase scattering.
Proper nouns / key terms and their appearances
Stealth technology / stealth objects: Standard defence-science term referring to low-observable platforms (aircraft, ships, etc.). Frequently appears in Indian English media coverage of indigenous programmes such as the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), Tejas variants, and related DRDO/ADA projects.
Radar cross-section (RCS): Core metric of radar detectability. Regularly discussed in technical and defence reporting on stealth aircraft and materials.
Radar Absorbing Material (RAM): Coatings or composites that absorb microwave energy. Covered in reports on Indian developments (e.g., CSIR-NAL’s NiRaLa laminate and ADRISHYA-RAM paint; Microwave RAM testing facilities for AMCA).
Metamaterials: Engineered materials with tailored electromagnetic properties. Prominent in recent Indian coverage of IIT-Kanpur’s Anālakṣhya Metamaterial Surface Cloaking System (textile-based broadband microwave absorber for camouflage/stealth, launched/ licensed around late 2024) and related ADA projects on artificial electromagnetic materials for component-level stealth.
Sources
PIB / official channels: Indirectly via defence ministry / DRDO / ADA announcements on indigenous stealth materials and AMCA-related facilities (often amplified in secondary reporting).
The Hindu / The Hindu BusinessLine: Features on Indian stealth-material advances, including metamaterial cloaking systems and the broader contest of “to see and not be seen” in radar warfare (e.g., 2025 BusinessLine piece referencing IIT-Kanpur work and DRDO radar upgrades).
Indian Express / The Print and other English outlets: Detailed coverage of IIT-Kanpur’s metamaterial cloaking technology (The Print, Dec 2024), CSIR-NAL radar-absorbing laminates and paints, and AMCA-linked RAM facilities.
44. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?
1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect — black boxes (flight recorders) carry an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) that emits ultrasonic acoustic “pings” (typically 37.5 kHz), not red light pulses.Statement 2 is correct — modern units record both cockpit voice (CVR) and flight data (FDR).Statement 3 is correct — the crash-survivable memory unit/housing is protected by stainless steel or titanium casings.
Proper nouns evaluation
The main proper noun/term is “Black Boxes” (colloquial name for aircraft flight recorders, specifically the combination of Cockpit Voice Recorder and Flight Data Recorder). Related technical terms include Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB), but the question centres on “Black Boxes.”
Appearances
PIB (Press Information Bureau): Regular mentions in official releases on civil aviation, accident investigations, and infrastructure. Example: April 2025 PIB release on the inauguration of the Digital Flight Data Recorder & Cockpit Voice Recorder Laboratory (“Black Box Lab”) at the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) by the Union Minister of Civil Aviation. Similar coverage appears whenever AAIB or DGCA activities involving recorders are announced.
The Hindu / Indian Express / other English newspapers: Frequent coverage in the context of aircraft accidents, safety investigations, and recovery efforts (e.g., after crashes or disappearances). The term appears routinely in aviation/safety reporting; the devices’ bright-orange colour, ultrasonic beacons, and stainless-steel/titanium construction are often explained in feature or explanatory pieces following major incidents.
45. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?
1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect. Hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS) is classified as blue hydrogen. Green hydrogen is produced with near-zero emissions via renewable energy.
Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is defined as hydrogen produced by electrolysis of water using electricity generated from renewable sources (solar, wind, etc.).
Statement 3 is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (approved January 2023) targets development of at least 5 MMT per annum green hydrogen production capacity by 2030, along with abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions, among other outcomes (≈125 GW associated renewable capacity, investments, jobs, etc.).
Evaluation of proper nouns / key terms and their appearances
Green HydrogenStandard international and Indian definition (electrolysis powered by renewables). Appears extensively in policy documents, scientific literature, and media since the early 2020s as part of the global energy transition and India’s net-zero pathway. Regular coverage in The Hindu, Indian Express, Business Standard, The Hindu Business Line, and specialised energy portals distinguishing it from grey/blue hydrogen.
Natural gas reforming + carbon capture and storage (CCS)Describes the production route for blue hydrogen. Discussed in the same media and technical reports that explain the hydrogen colour spectrum (grey = fossil without CCS; blue = fossil with CCS; green = renewable electrolysis).
National Green Hydrogen MissionLaunched/approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2023 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), with an initial outlay of ₹19,744 crore. Official details (including the 5 MMT production target and nearly 50 MMT annual GHG abatement by 2030) are published.
PIB / government sources: Multiple press releases and backgrounders (Cabinet approval notes, subsequent updates on capacity awards, expenditure, and progress) repeatedly state the “nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions” abatement figure alongside the 5 MMT production goal.
The Hindu / The Hindu Business Line: Coverage of Mission launch, progress (e.g., commissioned capacity, targets of 5 MMT by 2030), and related policy.
Indian Express and other English newspapers (Business Standard, etc.): Regular reporting on Mission approvals, SIGHT incentives, pilot projects, cost discoveries, and emissions-reduction targets since 2023, with continued updates into 2025–2026.
46. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:
1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Correct — IN-SPACe is an autonomous single-window agency under the Department of Space, created to promote, authorise and facilitate private-sector participation in space activities.
Correct — Agnikul Cosmos’s May 2024 suborbital flight of Agnibaan SOrTeD used the world’s first single-piece 3D-printed rocket engine (Agnilet).
Incorrect — Skyroot Aerospace has developed its own liquid (and cryogenic) engines for its Vikram series, but it has not developed liquid fuel/engines for ISRO’s GSLV.
Proper nouns and their appearances
Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe): Announced in 2020 and operationalised thereafter as an autonomous body under the Department of Space. Regularly featured in PIB releases on space-sector reforms, authorisations granted to non-government entities, and policy updates. Extensively covered in The Hindu, Indian Express, Business Standard, Times of India and other English dailies whenever private launches, technology transfers or new authorisations are reported (ongoing coverage through 2025–2026).
Agnikul Cosmos: Chennai-based private space start-up. Its 3D-printed engine technology and the May 2024 suborbital launch (first private launch from a dedicated pad and first single-piece 3D-printed engine flight) received wide coverage in The Hindu, Indian Express, India Today, Business Standard and international tech outlets. Subsequent engine tests (e.g., 2026 Agnite firings) continue to appear in the same newspapers and PIB-linked space updates.
Skyroot Aerospace: Hyderabad-based private space start-up (India’s first space unicorn). Its Vikram-S suborbital flight (2022) and especially the successful Vikram-1 orbital launch were major stories in The Hindu, Indian Express, Times of India, Business Standard, Reuters and others. Coverage routinely mentions its solid and liquid engines developed in-house for the Vikram family; there is no association with GSLV propellants.
GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle): Long-standing ISRO launch vehicle. Frequently appears in PIB, The Hindu and Indian Express reports on ISRO missions; the claim linking Skyroot to its liquid fuel does not appear in credible sources.
47. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?
1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect — operational drone swarms use conventional radio-frequency bands (e.g., UHF/VHF, L/S/C-band, ISM 2.4/5.8 GHz, or SATCOM) for links with a command centre. The Terahertz (THz) band remains largely experimental (mainly for future 6G or very short-range links) due to severe atmospheric absorption and limited range.Statement 2 is correct — inter-drone (peer-to-peer/mesh) communication is a defining feature of true swarms, enabling decentralised coordination, collision avoidance, and collective behaviour.Statement 3 is correct — GPS/GNSS spoofing (transmitting false navigation signals) is a standard and commonly discussed counter-UAS technique used to disrupt or divert drone swarms.
Proper nouns / key terms and sources
Drone swarms (or UAV/swarm drones): Coordinated groups of unmanned aerial vehicles operating with collective intelligence.
Terahertz band (THz frequency, ~0.1–10 THz): High-frequency spectrum researched for ultra-high-data-rate links.
GPS Spoofing (or GNSS spoofing): Electronic-warfare technique of broadcasting false satellite navigation signals to mislead receivers.
Appearance in sourcesThese terms appear regularly in defence, technology, and security reporting rather than as pure “breaking news” items:
PIB / government sources: Coverage of Indian counter-drone systems (e.g., DRDO anti-drone efforts, Indrajaal and related C-UAS platforms) and indigenous swarm trials often notes RF/GNSS vulnerabilities and countermeasures such as jamming or spoofing. Official briefings on military modernisation and border security also reference swarm capabilities and electronic-warfare responses.
The Hindu: Articles on Indian research (e.g., IIT-Bombay control schemes for GPS-independent swarms), defence technology, and global counter-UAS developments. Related pieces discuss autonomous coordination and navigation resilience.
Indian Express: Frequent in UPSC-oriented “Key” explainers and defence reports on swarm drones, electronic warfare, and counter-drone techniques; GPS spoofing is routinely listed among practical C-UAS methods. Coverage also includes Indian industry field trials of autonomous swarms.
48. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?
1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect — the GenomeIndia Project is an independent national initiative of the Government of India (launched 2020), not part of the international Human Genome Project (completed 2003).Statements 2 and 3 are correct: it is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and aims primarily to create a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations reflecting the diversity of the Indian population (whole-genome sequencing of ~10,000 individuals from diverse groups).
Proper nouns and their appearances
GenomeIndia Project (also Genome India / GenomeINDIA)
Official sites describe it as a DBT-funded pan-India consortium project (launched January 2020; sequencing of 10,000 genomes completed and data released ~2024–2025) whose core goal is a catalogue of Indian genetic diversity.
PIB / government announcements: Covered via DBT and Ministry of Science & Technology releases on project progress, data archival at the Indian Biological Data Centre, and findings.
The Hindu: Multiple reports, including “10,000 human genomes database launched” (January 2025) and later pieces on population-scale genomics and Nature Genetics findings (2025).
Indian Express: Explained articles (e.g., March 2024 on creating India’s genetic map; January 2025 on the project and why it matters).
Other English newspapers: Times of India (2025–2026 coverage of novel variants and project results) and broader science reporting.
Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India
Explicitly identified as the funding and nodal agency on official GenomeIndia and DBT portals, and in all major newspaper coverage (The Hindu, Indian Express, etc.).
49. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?
1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The National Quantum Mission (approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023 with an outlay of about ₹6,003.65 crore for 2023–24 to 2030–31) explicitly aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits (within 8 years, on platforms such as superconducting and photonic technologies; staged targets of 20–50 qubits in 3 years and 50–100 in 5 years also exist). Its implementation includes setting up four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) focused on Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices, hosted at leading academic and national R&D institutes (primarily IISc Bengaluru, IIT Madras, IIT Bombay, and IIT Delhi).
Proper nouns and their appearances
National Quantum Mission (NQM) and Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) are official terms from the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
PIB and government sites: Extensively covered in PIB press releases (e.g., Cabinet approval announcements, parliamentary replies detailing objectives, timelines, and hub status) and the official DST portal, which lists the qubit targets, T-Hubs, and their domains/host institutions. Progress updates (hubs becoming operational, funding, startup support) appear regularly in PIB notes from 2023 onward, including 2024–2026 releases.
The Hindu: Reported on the mission’s launch/approval, the operationalisation of the four T-Hubs (e.g., March 2025 coverage of hubs being made operational and related Lok Sabha information), qubit goals, and institutional locations.
Indian Express and other English newspapers: Covered related developments such as funding for fabrication facilities under the hubs, expansion of quantum teaching labs linked to the mission, and broader ecosystem progress. Other outlets (e.g., business and science reporting) have noted the ₹6,000-crore outlay, 50–1000 qubit targets, and T-Hub structure since the 2023 approval.
50. Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect — the Deep Ocean Mission is implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.Statement 2 is correct — Matsya-6000 is designed to carry three people (aquanauts) to a depth of 6,000 metres.Statement 3 is correct — Samudrayaan is the manned submersible project under the Deep Ocean Mission (with Matsya-6000 as its vehicle).
Evaluation of proper nouns and their appearances
Deep Ocean Mission (DOM): Flagship programme approved by the Cabinet in 2021 (₹4,077 crore over five years, phased) under MoES for deep-sea exploration, technology development, mining of polymetallic nodules, biodiversity studies, and blue-economy goals. It has six verticals/components.
PIB: Frequent official updates and Parliament replies (e.g., Feb 2026 and other 2025–2026 releases detailing milestones, wet tests, and progress).
The Hindu: Detailed features (e.g., 2023 article comparing it to space challenges; ongoing science coverage of progress).
Indian Express / other English papers (India Today, Statesman, etc.): Regular reporting on approvals, budgets, tests, and strategic significance since 2021, with renewed focus in 2025–2026 on timelines and trials.
Matsya-6000 (also styled Matsya 6000 / MATSYA-6000 / Matsya6000): Indigenous manned deep-submergence vehicle (titanium hull) developed primarily by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT, Chennai) under MoES, with design inputs linked to ISRO. Designed for three occupants, 6,000 m depth, ~12-hour normal operations (extendable to 96 hours in emergencies). Wet tests conducted (e.g., harbour trials near Chennai in early 2025); further dives planned.
PIB: Explicit mentions in MoES/Parliament updates on design completion, wet tests, and aquanaut training.
The Hindu: Coverage of prototypes, tests, and technical details.
Other English newspapers (India Today, Statesman, etc.): Frequent 2025–2026 reports on integration, trial schedules (e.g., 500 m dive targeted around 2026), and progress toward full-depth capability.
Samudrayaan: The crewed deep-sea exploration project/mission under the Deep Ocean Mission; Matsya-6000 is its primary vehicle for human-rated dives to explore the seabed (resources, biodiversity, etc.). Sometimes used more broadly for the overall deep-ocean human exploration effort.
PIB: Referenced in mission updates as the human-submersible component.
The Hindu: Explicitly linked to DOM and the 6,000 m goal.
Other English newspapers: Widely covered alongside Matsya-6000 in science and national-interest stories (India Today immersive features, etc.), especially around test milestones in 2025–2026.
51. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
(a) Esprit de corps (b) Equity (c) Accountability (d) Delegation
Answer: (c) Accountability
Mr. X identified quality compromise by a private provider, resisted pressure from vested interests, reported the matter to the vigilance authority, and halted the contract to protect citizen welfare. These actions most strongly demonstrate accountability (answerability for actions, transparency, and responsibility to uphold public interest). Equity relates more to fairness in treatment; esprit de corps to team spirit; delegation to assigning authority—none fit as closely.
52. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives - to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct (acknowledge cultural concerns first to build trust).Statement 2 is incorrect (rushing ahead ignores tribal rights protected under FRA, PESA, Fifth Schedule, etc., and risks escalation).Statements 3 and 4 are correct (inclusive dialogue + independent, transparent ESIA support evidence-based, sustainable mediation).
Evaluation of proper nouns / key terms
The question is a hypothetical UPSC-style ethics/case-study scenario. It contains few unique proper nouns; most terms are generic or standard policy language.
Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA): Standard technical term used in Indian environmental governance, World Bank/ADB project documents, and MoEFCC-related processes for assessing projects with social (including tribal) dimensions. It appears in government/project reports on solid-waste facilities, landfills, and infrastructure. Related EIA/ESIA discussions feature in The Hindu (e.g., debates on exemptions for waste-to-energy/municipal solid-waste facilities, 2025) and Indian Express (coverage of landfill clean-ups, clearances, and urban waste projects). PIB and MoEFCC notifications reference impact assessment frameworks for waste management.
Tribal hamlet / tribal community / sacred land / cultural identity: Generic references to Scheduled Tribe contexts. Protected under Forest Rights Act (FRA) 2006, PESA 1996, and constitutional schedules. Similar real-world tensions (tribal land rights vs. development/infrastructure) appear periodically in The Hindu and Indian Express reports on mining, dams, or industrial projects affecting tribal areas.
Waste management facility / solid waste challenges: Common urban governance topic. Covered extensively in The Hindu, Indian Express, and PIB on municipal solid-waste rules, landfills, waste-to-energy plants, and public-health issues. Recent stories include opposition to EIA exemptions for such facilities and delays in landfill remediation projects.
53. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project - a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
3. Propose a limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
The most appropriate course is 3 only (option b).
Immediate public disclosure of unproven allegations risks violating confidentiality rules, due process, and natural justice, and could invite legal issues. Unilaterally recommending removal of the contractor without investigation or authority also breaches fairness and procedural norms. Limited disclosure to a competent oversight/vigilance committee balances transparency, public interest, confidentiality, and institutional process—the ethically and administratively sound response.
54. 'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
(a) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(b) The view of Y that 'law' included custom is not correct.
(c) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
(d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.
Answer: (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.
Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution explicitly defines “law” (for the purposes of Part III) as including any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. X correctly listed ordinances, orders, rules and regulations but was wrong in rejecting the inclusion of custom/usage. Y’s point is therefore accurate, making only Y’s view fully correct.
Newspapers (The Hindu, Indian Express, and other English dailies):
It surfaces in analytical/opinion pieces and legal reporting when courts examine whether a particular custom or usage can be struck down for violating fundamental rights.
Notable examples include coverage of the Sabarimala temple-entry cases (The Hindu and others discussed whether temple customs fall under Article 13 and can be tested against equality/non-discrimination provisions). Similar references appear in reporting on personal laws, tribal customs, or challenges to discriminatory practices.
55. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
(a) All three statements are correct.
(b) There is no correct statement.
(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(d) There is only one correct statement.
Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.
All three statements are incorrect:
Article 393 explicitly provides the short title: “This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.”
Article 395 expressly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935 (along with amending/supplementing enactments, except the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949).
Article 394 states that the remaining provisions “shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution.”
56. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains - built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed by Parliament in 2016 (not 2018); it does provide for reservation in education/employment and duties on accessibility and non-discrimination.
Statement 2 is correct: Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) targets universal accessibility in the three domains of built infrastructure, transport systems, and information & communication technology (ICT).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a not-for-profit company under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities), not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Evaluation of proper nouns and sources
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (RPwD Act), 2016Landmark legislation replacing the 1995 PwD Act; expands recognised disabilities to 21, mandates reservations, accessibility, and non-discrimination.
PIB: Multiple releases, including the December 2016 announcement of parliamentary passage.
Newspapers: Regular coverage in The Hindu, Indian Express, Hindustan Times (e.g., 10-year reviews in 2026, implementation updates, Supreme Court cases).
Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan / Accessible India CampaignLaunched 3 December 2015 by DEPwD for barrier-free access.
PIB/MyGov: Launch and progress updates.
Newspapers: Covered in The Hindu, Indian Express and others around launch, audits, and progress reports; continues in accessibility and disability-rights stories.
National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC)Central public-sector not-for-profit company (registered under Section 25/Section 8 of the Companies Act) providing concessional loans for self-employment and entrepreneurship among PwDs.
PIB/Govt sites: Scheme details and organisational information.
Newspapers: Occasional mentions in The Hindu, Indian Express and other English dailies in the context of disability welfare schemes, loans, and empowerment programmes; less frequent than the Act or Campaign but appears in policy/feature stories.
57. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) All three statements are correct.
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect (the relevant provisions are in the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth). Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Thus there are two correct statements that include statement 2.
Statement 1: False. Article 244(2) + Sixth Schedule govern the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (via Autonomous District/Regional Councils). The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) covers Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in other states.
Statement 2: True. Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (and its successor provisions) exempts certain incomes of members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified areas (primarily Sixth Schedule areas and certain North-Eastern states/regions, plus Ladakh) from income tax.
Statement 3: True. Article 243D of the Constitution requires reservation of seats in every Panchayat for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population, and further provides that not less than one-third of those reserved seats shall be for women belonging to the SCs or STs (in addition to the overall one-third reservation for women).
Proper nouns and source appearances
Key terms: Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Fifth Schedule, Sixth Schedule (implied by the states named), Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Constitution of India, Income Tax (exemption), Panchayats.
These are core constitutional and statutory concepts that appear routinely in official and journalistic sources:
Government / PIB / official sites: The Constitution itself (Articles 244, 243D, Schedules V and VI), Ministry of Tribal Affairs / Panchayati Raj websites, and CBDT/Income Tax Department materials frequently explain the Fifth vs Sixth Schedule distinction, the Section 10(26) exemption for STs in specified areas, and Panchayat reservations. PIB releases and government reports on tribal welfare, PESA, and North-East autonomy regularly reference these provisions.
The Hindu / Indian Express / other English newspapers: The Fifth/Sixth Schedule distinction, demands for Sixth Schedule status (e.g., in other North-Eastern areas or Ladakh), ST tax exemptions, and SC/ST + women reservations in Panchayats appear periodically in explainers, news on tribal rights, North-East politics, and local-body elections. The Hindu has published detailed pieces on Scheduled Areas, Article 244, and Fifth/Sixth Schedule differences; similar coverage occurs in Indian Express and other dailies when related policy, court cases, or regional autonomy issues arise. These are long-standing static constitutional topics rather than purely “recent news” items, but they surface regularly in context of tribal welfare, tax policy, and Panchayati Raj reforms.
58. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.
Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Unstarred questions seek a written answer (laid on the Table of the House).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Starred questions seek an oral answer on the floor of the House (distinguished by an asterisk).
Statement 3 is correct: No supplementary questions are allowed on an unstarred question.
Thus only one statement is correct.
Evaluation of proper nouns / key terms
The main terms are procedural categories used in the Indian Parliament:
Starred questions — Questions for which an MP desires an oral answer; marked with an asterisk; limited numbers admitted daily; followed by possible supplementary questions.
Unstarred questions — Questions for which an MP desires a written answer; no oral discussion or supplementaries; much larger daily limit.
Supplementary question — Follow-up oral questions allowed only after a starred question has been answered on the floor.
These are defined in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha and the corresponding rules of the Rajya Sabha (administered by the respective Secretariats / Question Branches).
Where they appear
Official / PIB / parliamentary sources: Detailed in the Rules of Procedure (available on sansad.in / loksabha.nic.in / rajyasabha.nic.in). PIB and parliamentary bulletins routinely report on Question Hour, lists of starred/unstarred questions, and related proceedings.
The Hindu / Indian Express / other English newspapers: Regular coverage of Question Hour, controversies over admission or conversion of questions (starred unstarred), and analyses of what MPs ask. Clear explanations of the distinction appear in Indian Express “Explained” pieces (e.g., 2021 and later) and The Hindu reports on both Parliament and state assemblies (where the same terminology is used). Recent opinion pieces and data analyses (including in The Print and similar outlets) examine patterns in starred questions.
The terms are long-standing parliamentary vocabulary and surface frequently whenever Question Hour or MPs’ questions are discussed in the media.
59. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
(a) There are four correct statements.
(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(d) There is no correct statement.
Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.
All four statements are incorrect:
The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha).
Composition is 20 members elected by the Lok Sabha + 10 by the Rajya Sabha (the numbers are reversed in the statement).
No Minister (of any kind) is eligible to be a member; there is no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
The term is one year (not two years).
Evaluation of proper nouns and their appearances
Main proper noun: Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (also called SC/ST Welfare Committee) of the Parliament of India.
Recent reconstitutions (e.g., 2024–25 and 2025–26 terms) and Chairperson appointments (Dr. Faggan Singh Kulaste) are notified via Lok Sabha Secretariat bulletins and PIB releases.
PIB has covered national conferences of SC/ST Welfare Committees of Parliament and State Legislatures (e.g., August 2025 events in Bhubaneswar attended by the Lok Sabha Speaker and the Committee Chairperson).
Newspapers (The Hindu, Indian Express, and other English dailies)
The committee itself and its reports appear regularly when it tables findings on reservation implementation, atrocities against SCs/STs, faculty hiring in universities, or welfare schemes.
Examples: The Hindu has reported on the panel’s observations regarding gaps in SC/ST teacher hiring and student quotas in Delhi University, as well as broader issues of atrocities and scheme implementation.
Indian Express and other outlets (ANI, Economic Times, The Print, etc.) cover reconstitutions, Chairperson appointments (e.g., Faggan Singh Kulaste in 2024 and subsequent terms), and specific committee reports.
60. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:
1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. Mission Sudarshan Chakra (announced by PM Modi on 15 August 2025) is India’s indigenous multi-layered, AI-enabled air and missile defence architecture. It integrates defensive (air defence, ballistic missile defence) and offensive capabilities for rapid, precise responses, strengthens strategic autonomy under Atmanirbhar Bharat, and aims to expand a nationwide security shield covering strategic and important civilian/public places (hospitals, railways, centres of faith, etc.) by 2035.thehindu.com
Proper nouns evaluation
Mission Sudarshan Chakra (also referred to as Sudarshan Chakra mission/project/shield) is the central proper noun. It draws its name from the mythological Sudarshan Chakra associated with Lord Krishna.
Where it has appeared
PIB / official government sources: Covered in connection with the Prime Minister’s Independence Day address (15 August 2025) from the Red Fort and subsequent Ministry of Defence / DRDO statements on related tests (e.g., Integrated Air Defence Weapon System, Project Kusha as a component). Official framing emphasises indigenous development, multi-domain protection, and the 2035 timeline.
The Hindu: Reported the announcement on 15 August 2025 and follow-up coverage of the indigenous aerial defence system, multi-layered shield for strategic and civilian areas, and progress toward the 2035 goal. Frontline (The Hindu group) has also analysed it in the context of regional missile defence.
Indian Express: Detailed exclusive reports (e.g., October 2025) on integration of over-the-horizon radars, satellites, directed-energy weapons, and nationwide coverage; also covered DRDO tests advancing the mission’s 2035 objectives.
Other English newspapers: Extensive coverage in The Times of India (multi-layered air & missile shield integrated with offensive weapons; Kusha tests as steps toward the pan-India shield), The Print, and others describing it as India’s “Iron Dome”-like system that acts as both shield and sword, with phased implementation toward full expansion by 2035.
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